1. When two
aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement
applies?
a) Gliders shall give way to helicopters
b) Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters
c) Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes .
d) Gliders shall give way to balloons.
Ans. d)
2. When a clearance for an “immediate take-off”
is accepted, the pilot shall
a) back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for
take-off .
b) Taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off
without further clearance.
c) Taxi onto the runway and takeoff in one continuous movement.
d) Complete the pre-take-off check before taxiing onto the runway
and taking off.
Ans. c)
3. The
radiotelephone distress signal to indicate grave and /or imminent danger
requiring
immediate assistance is
a) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
b) PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN
c) SECURITY, SECURITY, SECURITY.
d) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
Ans. a)
4. Estimated
elapsed time A to B
1hr 15minutes.
Estimated stopover time at B 30 minutes.
Estimated elapsed time B to C 1 hr 20 minutes
Using the above information, what time
should be entered in the “Elapsed Time “ BOX OF
VFR flight plan ?
a) 3hrs 50minutes.
b) 3hrs 20minutes.
c) 3hrs 05minutes.
d) 2 hrs 35 minutes
Ans. c)
5.
Minimum cross-country hours required for an Instrument Rating are:
a) 20 hrs b) 40 hrs c) 50 hrs d) 60 hrs
Ans. c)
6. The route navigation
charges are on the basis of:
a) AUW b) Length of aircraft
c) No. of Nav Aids used d) No.
of passengers
Ans. a)
7. Petroleum in bulk is
petroleum in receptacle, which exceeds _______________lts
a. .1000 b. 900 c.1500
d. 500
Ans. b)
8. The demolition of
buildings and trees act came into effect in the year:
a. 1934 b. 1937
c. 1994 d. 1954
Ans. c)
9.
In class A airspace
a)
all flights are permitted. b) only VFR flights are permitted.
c) Only IFR
flights are permitted. d) SPL
VFR flights are permitted
Ans. c)
10.
Letter ‘W’ in ATS Route designator indicates:
a)
Domestic routes b) International routes c) Regional routes d) None of the above
Ans. a)
11. The air traffic service which prevents the
collision between aircraft is called
a)
Alerting service b) Flight information service
c) Air traffic
control service d) Air
Traffic Advisory Service
Ans. c)
12. Prohibited
area around Malabar hill is _____ mile.
a) 1 NM b) 1 Mile c) 5 NMs d) 1 Km
Ans. b)
13. Incubation
period of yellow fever is ______ days: a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10
Ans. a)
14. Separation
between Medium A/C taking off behind heavy A/C (or) Light A/C taking off
behind Medium A/C is ______ min: a) 02mins b) 5mins c) 3mins d) 1 min
Ans. a)
15. Longitudinal
separation between two A/C on same track is _____ min
a) 10 b) 15
c) 20 d) 5
Ans. b)
16. A/C incident
should be notified with in _______ hrs.
a) 24 hrs b) 12 hrs c)
48 hrs d
) 36 hrs
Ans. c)
17. Indian Airspace
comes under ________ class of airspace.
a)A&B b) D& E c) A,B,C& D d)
D,E,F& G
Ans. d)
18. No
unauthorized person must be present within ______ mtrs of A/C , while refueling
is on .
a) 15 mts b) 30 mts c) 50 mts d) 10 mts
Ans. a)
19. An aircraft
must fly ______ Nm away from International Border.
a) 10 NMs
b) 15 NMs c) 20 NMs d) 25 NMs
Ans. b)
20. VOR Track
separation is _______
a) 15º at 30 NMs b) 15º at 20 NMs c) 15º at 15 NMs d) 15º at 10 NMs
Ans. c)
21. The duty
time of the trainee pilot:
a)
is calculated as per the FDTL
b)
is not affected by the FDTL
c)
is the time calculated from
take off to landing
d) is from “chokes off” time to “chokes on”
time
Ans. a)
22. FL 145 can
be used:
a)
by eastbound aircraft on IFR
plan b) by westbound aircraft on VFR
plan
c) By eastbound aircraft on VFR plan d) non of the above
Ans. b)
23. In VMC the
vertical distance from cloud base is ________
a) 1000’ b) 2000’ c) 500’ d) 1.5 kms
Ans. a)
24. A pilot can fly in 30 consecutive days
a)
100 hrs PIC & 50 hrs as Co
pilot b) 100 hrs PIC
& 30 hrs as Co pilot
c) 120 hrs PIC & 20 hrs as Co pilot d) 120 hrs PIC & 10 hrs
as Co pilot
Ans. b)
25. Fresh ADC is
required in case the flight is delayed by _________ minutes.
a) 10 mins b) 15 mins c) 30 mins d) 60
mins
Ans. c)
26. In India separation between IFR and IFR
is provided in ______ class of Airspace.
a) B b) A & B c) D& E d) D, E,F & G
Ans. a)
27. TMA means
a)
Terminal Maintenance Area b) The main Apron
c)
Terminal Control Area d) None of
the above
Ans. c)
28. Displaced threshold
lights will be in _________ colour.
a) Red b) Blue c) Green d) Yellow
Ans. c)
29. Minimum obstacle
clearance in mountainous terrain for an IFR light is
a) 1000’ in 5kms b) 2000’ in 8 kms c)
2000’ in 5kms d) 1500’
Ans. b)
30.
________Letter stands for non-scheduled flight in flight plan.
a) S b)
N c) Z Z d) NS
Ans. b)
31. Flight navigator shall be carried, if the flight is more than
________ Nm and no Nav-aid is
present with in ________
Nm of route.
a) 600
Nm/ 30 Nm b) 300 Nm/30 Nms c) 600 Nm/60 Nm d) 300 Nm/ 60 Nm
Ans. a)
32. The _______ % of co-pilot flying is counted
towards the renewal of CPL as PIC.
a) 50%
b) 80% c) 60% d) 100%
Ans. a)
33 12 stripes of
threshold markings indicate a rw width of
a) 30 m
b) 45 m c) 60 m d) 24 m
Ans. b)
34. 4 pairs of touch
down zone markings indicate landing distance available
a) 900m
b) 1200 to 1500 m c) 1500 mto2399 m d) 2400 m or more
Ans. c)
35. The visibility minima for take off, if the
aerodrome is not equipped with radio
nav aid is ______ km.
a) 8 kms b) 10 kms c) 5 kms
d) 3.7 kms
Ans. c)
36. An aircraft accident has
to be informed to the DGCA with in
a) 12 hrs b) 24 hrs c)
48 hrs d) 60 hrs
Ans. b)
37. A signal
made by radio- telegraphy (or) by any other signaling method consisting, of the
group ‘XXX’ in Morse code indicates: a)
Distress b) Urgency c) Radio failure d)
Priority
Ans. b)
38. Taxiway Centre line lights shall be of the following colour
a) white b) red
c)blue d) green
Ans. d)
39. An Air-miss
incident report made by radio (or) telephone must be confirmed with in
_____ days. a) 2
b) 4 c) 7 d) 10
Ans. c)
40. A person holding
________ shall fly ‘Aerial work Aircraft’
a) PPL b) CPL/ATLP c) IR d) Multi Engine Rating
Ans. b)
41. ‘Flight by night ‘means a flight performed between the periods
of
a) 20 mins after sunset
to 20 mins before sunrise
b) 15 mins before
sunrise to 15 mins after sunset
c) 45 mins before
sunrise to 45 mins after sunset
d) 60 mins before
sunrise
Ans. a)
42. ‘RPL’ shall be used for
___________ flights only.
a) VFR Flts b) Domestic
flights c) IFR Flts d) International Flight
Ans. c)
43. ‘Rockets
(or) shells throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals from an
aircraft
indicate ______: a) Urgency b) Priority c) Distress d) Over flying
danger area
Ans. c)
44. Which response is most correct with
respect to wake turbulence?
a) Wing tip vortices are carried by
the ambient wind.
b) Wing tip vortices
have a circular and downward motion.
c) Wake turbulence exists behind all
aeroplanes and helicopters in flight.
d) Response (a), (b), (c) is correct.
Ans. d)
45. Wake turbulence is
produced by
a) Heavy aeroplanes only, regardless of
their speed.
b) turbo-jet powered aircraft only.
c) Fast moving aeroplanes only,
regardless of their weight.
d) All fixed and rotary wing aircraft.
Ans. d)
46. At
an aerodrome the aerobatics can be
carried out above 2000’ feet
a)
Within 4 nm of perimeter of aerodrome
b)
Beyond 2 nm of perimeter of
aerodrome
c)
Within 5 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
d) Beyond perimeter of aerodrome
Ans. b)
47. Runways and taxiways or portions thereof
that are closed to aircraft are marked by
a) Red flags.
b) Horizontal red squares with yellow
diagonals.
c) A white or yellow X.
d) White dumb-bells.
Ans. c)
48. Runway
direction designator is: a) QDM b)
QDR c) QTE d) QNH
Ans. a)
49. Runway
threshold lights are
a) Unidirectional red lights b) Omni directional yellow lights
c) Unidirectional green lights d) Omni directional blue lights
Ans. c)
50. Anti
collision light is read. for A/C whose AUW exceeds
a) 1500 Kg b) 5700 Kg c) 10,000 Kg d)
57,000 Kg
Ans. b)
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