Thursday, 18 February 2016

Regulation Indigo part 1 Page (01-06)

10.1.1.1 (1)

An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ?

a) 2nd freedom
b) 1st freedom

c) 3rd freedom
d) 4th freedom

10.1.1.1 (2)
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes,

a) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.

b) aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
c) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.

d) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.

10.1.1.2 (3)
The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :

a) Chicago convention 1944
b) Warzaw convention 1929

c) Geneva convention 1948
d) Geneva convention 1936

10.1.1.2 (4)

The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of :
a) Chicago
b) The Hague
c) Warsaw

d) Montreal

10.1.1.3 (5)

One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :
a) develop principles and techniqe for international aviation

b) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies
c) approve new internationel airlines with jet aircraft

d) approve new international airlines

10.1.1.4 (6)

Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption ?

a) the Air Navigation Commission
b) the Assembly

c) the Council
d) the Regional Air Navigation meeting 

10.1.1.4 (7)

The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:

a) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference

b) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states

c) binding for all member states
d) binding for all air line companies with international traffic

10.1.2.0 (8)
Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ?

a) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention

b) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
c) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations

d) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses

10.1.2.0 (9)
The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:

a) limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-รก-vis passenger and goods transported

b) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
c) operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation

d) the security system at airports

10.1.2.0 (10)

Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect :

a) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments

b) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments

c) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed

d) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governements

10.1.2.0 (11)

The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law

a) may deliver such person to the competent authorities
b) may request such person to disembark
c) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person

d) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members

10.1.2.0 (12)

Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed

a) International Civile Aviation Organisation
b) the other Contracting States
c) United Nations
d) to all States Members of United Nations

10.1.2.0 (13)
The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is :

a) the convention of Tokyo
b) the convention of Paris

c) the convention of Rome
d) the convention of Chicago

10.1.2.1 (14) ""Cabotage"" refers to:
a) domestic air services ,
b) a national air carrier,

c) a flight above territorial waters,
d) crop spraying

10.1.2.1 (15)
The second freedom of the air is the :

a) right to land for a technical stop
b) right to overfly without landing

c) right to ""cabotage"" traffic, (trans-border traffic).

d) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.

10.1.2.1 (16)

The first freedom of the air is:
a) The right to overfly without landing.

b) The right to land for a technical stop.

c) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.

d) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.

10.1.2.2 (17)

The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, is
a) the convention of Tokyo

b) the convention of Warsaw
c) the convention of Rome

d) the convention of Madrid

10.1.2.2 (18)

The convention of Tokyo applies to damage :

a) caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state

b) only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state
c) caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registration 
     d) the above convention does not deal with this item 
10.1.2.4 (19)

The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the :

a) Warsaw Convention.
b) Tokyo Convention.

c) Hague Convention.
d) Montreal Convention.

10.1.4.0 (20)
The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with :

a) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
b) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods

c) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
d) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft

10.1.4.0 (21)

The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is :

a) the Rome Convention
b) the Warsaw Convention

c) the Paris Convention
d) the Tokyo Convention

10.1.4.0 (22)

Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by :

a) the Rome Convention
b) the Chicago Convention

c) the Warsaw Convention
d) the Montreal Convention

10.2.0.0 (23)

When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the
a) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
b) four letter combinations beginning with Q
c) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals

d) letters used for ICAO identification documents

10.2.0.0 (24)

The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes :

a) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
b) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
c) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass

d) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass 
10.2.0.0 (25)
The loading limitations shall include :

a) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings

b) all limiting mass and centres of gravity
c) all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity

d) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings

10.3.0.0 (26)

The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by :

a) the International Civil Aviation Organisation
b) the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union

c) the International Telecommunication Union
d) the state of registry

10.3.0.0 (27)

The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated :

a) to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union

b) to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation

c) to the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union
d) to state of the operator

10.3.0.0 (28)

The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by :
a) the state of registry or common mark registering authority
b) the state of registry only
c) the International Civil Aviation Organisation

d) the Internationnal Telecommunication Union

10.3.0.0 (29)

When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example

a) TTT
b) FFF

c) RCC
d) LLL

10.3.0.0 (30)

When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example
a) PAN
b) RCC
c) LLL

d) DDD

10.3.0.0 (31)

When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used




which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
a) XXX

b) DDD
c) RCC

d) LLL

10.3.0.0 (32)

The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be
a) at least 50 centimetres

b) at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
c) at least 60 centimetres

d) at least 75 centimetres

10.3.0.0 (33)

The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be

a) at least 30 centimetres
b) at least 40 centimetres

c) at least 20 centimetres
d) at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres

10.4.0.0 (34)

The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous profeciency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new profeciency check can be and can't exceed:

a) 31th of December the same year
b) 15th of October the same year

c) 30th of October the same year
d) 30th of April the following year

10.4.0.0 (35)

The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:

a) A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

b) Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

c) A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.

d) Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

10.4.0.0 (36)

When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization:

a) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
b) Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.

c) Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.
d) Is only considered for PPL

10.4.0.0 (37)

Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?
a) Annex 1
b) Annex 2
c) Annex 3

d) Annex 4

10.4.0.0 (38)

You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL

a) With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating
b) With an ATPL

c) With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
d) With a CPL

10.4.0.0 (39)
The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is :

a) 1 year
b) 6 months

c) 5 years
d) 2 years

10.4.0.0 (40)
The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is :

a) 17 years
b) 16 years

c) 18 years
d) 21 years

10.4.0.0 (41)

To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is :
a) 21 and 59 years
b) 16 and 60 years
c) 17 and 59 years

d) 18 and 60 years

10.4.0.0 (42)

The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is :

a) 21
b) 30

c) 60
d) 90

10.4.0.0 (43)

If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed :



a) After 21 days of consecutive ""illness""
b) as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days

c) after one calendar month of consecutive illness
d) if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires

10.4.0.0 (44)

The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than :

a) 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence

b) 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
c) 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence

d) 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence

10.4.0.0 (45)
The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than :

a) 18 years of age
b) 21 years of age

c) 17 years of age
d) 16 years of age

10.4.0.0 (46)
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold

a) a current class I medical assessment
b) a current class II medical assessment

c) a current class III medical assessment
d) a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence

10.4.0.0 (47)
Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.

a) Land/inactive.
b) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive.

c) Single-engine/inactive.
d) 1999-06-08 0:00

10.4.0.0 (48)
The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be :

a) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation

b) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation

c) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportation
d) none of the answers are correct

10.4.0.0 (49)
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less

than ........
hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross
country flight totalling not less than ........
km (-NM), in the course of which full

stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are :
a) 20 hours and 540 km (300NM)

b) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
c) 15 hours and 540 km (300NM)

d) 20 hours and 270 km (150NM)
 10.4.0.0 (50)

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :

a) 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)

b) 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)

c) 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)

d) 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)

10.4.0.0 (51)

An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively :
a) 250 hours and 100 hours

b) 200 hours and 75 hours
c) 200 hours and 100 hours

d) 150 hours and 75 hours

10.4.0.0 (52)

The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively :

a) 200 hours and 100 hours
b) 250 hours and 10 hours

c) 150 hours and 75 hours
d) 200 hours and 75 hours

10.4.0.0 (53)

An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :

a) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.

b) 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time

c) 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time.
d) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.



10.4.0.0 (54)

An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
a) 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
b) 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command
c) 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot

d) 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command

10.4.0.0 (55)

The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of :

a) 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

b) 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer

c) 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

d) 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

10.4.0.0 (56)

An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively

a) 50 hours and 10 hours
b) 40 hours and 10 hours

c) 40 hours and 15 hours
d) 50 hours and 15 hours

10.4.0.0 (57)

In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed :

a) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.

b) Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations

c) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.

d) in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months

10.4.0.0 (58)

The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date :

a) the medical assessment is issued
b) the licence is issued or validated

c) the licence is issued or renewed
d) the licence is delivered to the pilot

10.4.0.0 (59)

When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorization
a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
b) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence

c) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion

d) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights

10.4.0.0 (60)

When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from :

a) 12 months to 6 months
b) 12 months to 3 months

c) 24 months to 12 months
d) none of the answers are correct

10.4.0.0 (61)
Type ratings shall be established

a) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
b) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots

c) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter

d) all the answers are correct

10.4.0.0 (62)

The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit :

a) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

b) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence

c) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority
d) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

10.4.0.0 (63)

For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night

a) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command

b) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot
c) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command

d) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command

10.4.0.0 (64)

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :



a) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes

b) 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
c) 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command

d) 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command

10.4.0.0 (65)

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :

a) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time

b) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time.

c) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time

d) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command

10.4.0.0 (66)

The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is :

a) Annex 1
b) Annex 2

c) Annex 11
d) Annex 12

10.4.0.0 (67)

At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.

a) At the diiscretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licence

b) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year

c) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
d) 1998-11-27 0:00

10.4.0.0 (68) More than 12 hours

a) More than 12 days
b) More than one week

c) Any period
d) 1998-11-30 0:00

10.4.0.0 (69)
According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for

a) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter

b) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
c) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter

24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter 

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