Q1. AIP India is published by:
a) DGCA b) AAI c) Civil Aviation Ministry d) ICAO
Ans. b)
Q2. AIP consists of:
a) 3 parts (GEN, ENR & AD) b) 4 parts
(GEN, ENR, AD MET)
c) 6 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET, COMM, ATC) d) 2 parts (GEN, AD)
Ans. a)
Q3. Regular amendments to the AIP will be:
a) Twice a year in Jan and July month of each year
b) Every quarter of the year Jan, April, July and Oct month of each year
c) Once every year in the month of April of each year
d) On as required basis
Ans. c)
Q4. Without visual aid, a pilot often
interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:
(a) Rising or falling (b) turning (c) motion reversal
Ans. a)
5.
A flight , which exceeds Mach
number-1 , cannot fly over:
a)
Populated areas b) Indian Air Space c) Europe d)
High seas
Ans. b)
Q6. A passenger visited a yellow fever infected area on the previous
six days, but is not in possession of
valid yellow fever certificate, then action taken by PIC of the flight is:
a)
Send a radio message two hours
before the arrival about the state of the health of the passenger
b)
No action required
c)
Inform Airlines office after
landing
d)
Inform health authorities of
the place of departure
Ans. a)
Q7. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged
constant rate turn in IMC or simulated
instrument condition can cause:
(a) Pilot disorientation
(b) False horizon (c)
Elevator illusion
Ans. a)
Q8. Which of the following statements is not correct for
classification of Airspace in India?
a)
Class D Airspace is applicable
to TMA, control zones and control areas
b)
Class E is applicable to
Airspace in designated ATS route outside terminal and control areas.
c)
Class F in applicable to
airspace outside CTAs/TMAs/CTRs/ATZs
d)
Class G Airspace is applicable
to airspaces other than D,E and F
Ans. c)
Q9. An abrupt change from climb to straight
and level flight can create the illusion of:
(a) Tumbling backwards (b) a
nose up attitude (c) a descent with
the wing level
Ans. a)
Q10. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can
create the illusion of:
(a)
Spinning in the opposite
direction b) Being in a nose up attitude c) Diving into the ground
Ans. b)
Q11. An Aircraft shall report “long final” when it is at ____ from
the approach end of the rwy
a)
8NMs b) 4NMs c) 1NMs
d) 2 NMs
Ans. a)
Q12. A Cessna 152 aircraft force lands at a
wheat field due to shortage of fuel. It will be reported
as: a) An accident b) An incident c) Not reportable d) An Airport
Ans. b)
Q13. A pilot should never cross a:
a)
Stop bar which is switched
off b) Stop bar which is
lighted
c) A taxi holding position marking d) An intermediate holding position
marking
Ans. b)
Q14. FDTL for training flights does not
restrict:
a) Flight Time b) Flight Duty
Time c) Number of landings d) all of the above
Ans. c)
Q15. For a flight at night in VMC, the
approach will appear to be
a) Same as day b) Steeper c)
Speed will be more d) Shallower.
Ans. b)
Q16. Decision Altitude is applicable for:
a)
Non Precision Approaches b) PAPI Approaches
c) Precision
Approaches d) All of the
above
Ans. c)
Q17. Prisoners on Board an aircraft can be
carried with the permission of
a)
DGCA
b) Controller of Aerodrome
c)Director
General of Prisons d)
Police Commissioner
Ans. a)
Q18. Flight time/flight duty time
limitations shall be applicable to:
a)
Pilots only b) Pilots and cabin crews
only
c) P-i-C and
Co-pilot d) all flight crew personnel
Ans. d)
Q19. Large accumulation of carbon
mono-oxide in the blood results in:
a)
Dizziness b) Fear
c) Hot and Cold Sensations d)
Disorientation
Ans. a)
Q20. Deviations from International
Standards and recommended practices are published in:
a)
AIRAC b) AICs c) AIP d) ICAO Annexures
Ans. c)
Q21. To find current watch hours of a
station you should look into:
a) AIRAC b) AICs c) AIP d) Notams
Ans. c)
Q22. ‘ATIS’ is a continuous broadcast of
recorded information concerning:
a) ATS information
b) ATS and Met information
c) Navigation
Information d) Traffic
Information
Ans. b)
Q23. Flight Manual is to be carried by
a)
All aircraft b) Scheduled aircraft only
c) If C of A
states so d) All aircraft other than
aerial work aircraft
Ans. c)
Q24. An aircraft is on a track of 030º (M)
and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F370. Other
aircraft at F370 on a track of 100º(M) can cross the same point not
earlier than:
a) 0422 hrs b) 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster c) 0427 hrs d)
0402 hrs
Ans. c)
Q25. An ac at F390 crosses a point at 0210
hrs wishes to descent to F310. There is reciprocal
traffic estimating to cross same point
at 0300hrs maintaining F 330. By what time the
descending aircraft should reach F310 if both aircraft maintain same
speed?
a) 0215 hrs b) 0220 hrs c) 0225 hrs
d) 0250 hrs
Ans. c)
Q26. OCA is used for determination of:
a)
MDA b) DA
c) Both MDA and DA d) None of
the above
Ans. c)
Q27. The numbers 09 and 27 on a runway
indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
a)
009º and 27º true b) 090º and 270º
true
c) 090º
and 270º magnetic d) 090º and
270º compass
Ans. c)
Q28. When approaching taxiway holding lines
from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
a)
may continue taxiing
b)
should not cross the lines
without ATC clearance
c)
should continue taxiing until
all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
d)
continue taxiing if runway is
vacant
Ans. b)
Q29. The numbers 08 and 26 on the approach
ends of the runway is oriented approximately
a)
008º and 26º true b) 080º and 260º
true
c) 080º and 260º magnetic d) 080º and 260º compass
Ans. c)
Q30. What is the purpose of the
runway/runway hold position sign?
a)
Denotes entrance to runway from
a taxiway
b)
Denotes area protected for an
aircraft approaching or departing a runway
c)
Denotes intersecting runways
d)
Denotes intersecting taxiways
Ans. c)
Q31. An airport’s rotating beacon operated
during daylight hours indicates
a)
there are obstructions on the
airport
b)
that weather at the airport
located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
c)
the Air Traffic Control is not in operation
d)
runway is blocked
Ans. b)
Q32. Wingtip vortices are created only when
an aircraft is
a)
operating at high
airspeeds b) heavily loaded c) Developing lift d) taxiing fast
Ans. c)
Q33. Wingtip vortices created by large
aircraft tend to
a)
sink below the aircraft
generating turbulence
b)
rise into the traffic pattern
c)
rise into the takeoff or
landing path of a crossing runway
d)
rise towards the engines of the
aircraft
Ans. a)
Q34. How does the wake turbulence vortex
circulate around each wingtip?
a)
Inward, upward, and around each
tip b) Inward, upward and counterclockwise
c) Outward,
upward, and around each tip d) Outward, upward and away from each tip
Ans. c)
Q35. When taking off or landing where heavy
aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of
wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
a)
rise from crossing runway into
the takeoff or landing path
b)
rise into the traffic pattern
area surrounding the airport.
c)
Sink into the flight path of
aircraft generating the turbulence
d)
Stay on runway in strong cross
wind conditions
Ans. c)
Q36. The greatest vortex strength occurs
when the generating aircraft is
a)
light, dirty and fast b) heavy, dirty and fast
c) Heavy, clean and slow d) light, clean and slow
Ans. c)
Q37. The wind condition that requires
maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a
a)
light, quartering headwind b) light, quartering tailwind
c) strong headwind d) strong tailwind
Ans. b)
Q38. When departing behind a heavy
aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by
maneuvering the aircraft
a)
below and downwind from the
heavy aircraft
b)
above and upwind from the heavy
aircraft
c)
below and upwind from the heavy
aircraft
d)
above and downwind from the
heavy aircraft
Ans. b)
Q39. When landing behind a large aircraft,
the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
a) Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the
large aircraft’s
touchdown point
b) Below the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the
large aircraft’s
Touchdown point
c) Above the large aircraft’s final approach
path and landing before the large aircraft’s
touchdown point
Ans. a)
Q40. When landing behind a large aircraft,
which procedure should be followed for vortex
avoidance?
a) Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to
touchdown
b)
Stay below and to one side of
its final approach flight path
c)
Stay well below its final
approach flight path
d)
Make a normal approach and land
Ans. a)
Q41. During a night flight, you observe a
steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at
the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the
other aircraft?
a)
The other aircraft is crossing
to the left b) The other aircraft
is flying away from you
c) The other aircraft is
approaching to the right d) The
other aircraft is crossing head-on
Ans. a)
Q42. During a night flight, you observe
steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at
the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the
other aircraft?
a)
The other aircraft is flying away from
you b) The other aircraft is crossing to
the left
c)
The other aircraft is crossing to the right d) The other aircraft is approaching
head-on
Ans. a)
Q43. During a night flight, you observe
steady red and green lights ahead and at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other
aircraft?
a)The other
aircraft is crossing to the left b)The
other aircraft is flying away from you
c) The other aircraft is
approaching head-on d) The other
aircraft is crossing to the right
Ans. c)
Q44. The most effective method of scanning
for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use
a)
regularly spaced concentration
on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’clock positions
b)
a series of short, regularly
spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
c)
peripheral vision by scanning
small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
d)
a series of eye movements
focused at horizon
Ans. b)
Q45. The most effective method of scanning
for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use
a)
regularly spaced concentration
on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’clock positions
b)
a series of short, regularly
spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
c)
peripheral vision by scanning
small sectors and utilizing off center viewing
d)
focusing at lighted objects for
30 sec.
Ans. c)
Q46. How can you determine if another
aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
a)
The other aircraft will always
appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate
b)
The nose of each aircraft is
pointed at the same point in space
c)
There will be no apparent
relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft
d)
The nose of other aircraft is
pointed towards your aircraft
Ans. c)
Q47. Prior to starting each maneuver,
pilots should
a)
check altitude, airspeed, and
heading
b) Visually scan the entire area for collision
avoidance
b)
announce their intentions to
the nearest ATC
c)
tighten seat belt
Ans. b)
Q48. Most midair collision accidents occur
during
a)
hazy days b) clear days c) cloudy nights d) dark nights
Ans. b)
Q49. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous
during flights with one pilot?
a)
Night vision may be so impaired
that pilot cannot see other aircraft.
b)
Symptoms of hypoxia may be
difficult to recognize before the pilots reactions are affected.
c)
The pilots may not be able to
control the aircraft even if using oxygen.
Ans. b)
Q50. The sensations which lead to spatial
disorientation during instrument flight conditions:
(a)
Are frequently encountered by
beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with moderate instrument
experience.
(b)
Occur, in most instances,
during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight.
(c)
Must be suppressed and complete
reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.
Ans. c)
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