1. In class A airspace
a)
All flights are permitted. b) Only VFR flights are
permitted.
c) Only IFR flights are permitted. d) SPL VFR
flights are permitted.
Ans. c)
2. In class D air space
a)
IFR & VFR flights are
permitted & all flights are subject to Air Traffic Control
b)
IFR flights are separated from
other IFR flights & receive information in respect of VFR flights
c)
VFR flights receive traffic
information about other flights
d)
all are correct
Ans. d)
3. Route guides are required to be carried
in
a)
all aircraft
b) all private aircraft
c) Aircraft involved in scheduled transport
services d) all aircraft engaged in
aerial work
Ans. c)
4.
ADC clearance is required to be obtained
a)
on a cross country flight b) for all aircraft
operating within ADIZ
c) When
returning to base on the same day
d) it is not
required when returning to base on the same day
Ans. b)
5. Pilots log book is to be preserved for
a)
5 years from the date of
starting the log book b) 5 years
from the date of last entry
c) 3 yrs from the date of last entry d) 10 yrs from the
date of last entry
Ans. b)
6. A double white cross displayed on a
signal square indicate
a)
area not fit for the use of
aircraft b) gliding in
progress
c) take permission before landing d) prohibited area
Ans. b)
7. Medical for a CPL holder is valid for
a)
2 years b) 1 year
c) 1 year if age is less than 40 years d) 2 years if the age is less than 40
years
Ans. c)
8. Letter ‘W’ in ATS Route designator
indicates:
a)
Domestic routes b) International routes c) Regional routes d) None of the above
Ans. a)
9. Position report is required to be given
when
a)
crossing an FIR b) over a compulsory
reporting point
c) if so required by ATC d) all are correct
Ans. d)
10. Aerodrome data and facilities are given
in
a)
Aeradio b) AIP
c) Notams d) AIRACs
Ans. b)
11. The highest point on the landing area
is called:
a)
Aerodrome elevation b) Runway elevation c) ARP
d) Threshold elevation
Ans. a)
12. Anti-collision light is a light :
a)
Red in colour affixed on top
of the control tower
b)
A red light on the port wing of
the aircraft
c)
A red light visible 30deg above
and below the horizon of the aircraft which is visible in all directions
d)
The navigation lights of any
aircraft are called anti-collision lights
Ans. c)
13. Operational Manual is:
a)
Prepared by the manufacturer
and authorized by operator
b)
Prepared by the DGCA and
authorized by operator
c)
Prepared by the operator and
authorized by manufacturer
d)
Prepared by the operator and
authorized by the DGCA
Ans. d)
14. An aircraft is commencing descend from
its initial FL 290 over Palam Airport. The altimeter reads 12000 ft. The
commander will report his vertical distance to the ATC in terms of:
a)
12000’ Altitude b) F 120 c) 12000’ a.g.l. d) 12000’ amsl
Ans. b)
15. An aircraft is following a track of
179º (M) on a VFR plan . The choice of flight levels available to the pilot is:
a)
50,70,90,150,170,190,210,230,250,270,290
b)
55,75,95,155,175,195,215,235,255,275,295
c)
50,70,90,110,130,160,180,200,220,240,260,280
d)
55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175,
195, 215, 235, 255, 275
Ans. d)
16. A horizontal red square panel with one
yellow diagonal means:
a)
Do not land for the time
being b) Landings
Prohibited
c) Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on
runways and taxi ways only
d) Special precaution while landing should be
taken because of the bad state of the
Maneuvering area
Ans. d)
17. The visibility minima for those
Airlines who have not filed their own Minima with the
DGCA for an airport for Non Precession approach is:
a)
1500’ b) 1500 meters c) 5 Nm d) 3.7 km
Ans. d)
18. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one year is: ______ hrs
a. 200 b. 900 c. 1200 d. 1000
Ans. d)
19. Aerodrome operation minima is given by
a)
DGCA b) Operator c) Operator & is approved by DGCA d) India Met Department
Ans. c)
20. If the age
of a CPL holder is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for_________
a) 1 yr
b) 6 months c) 2 yrs d) 5 yrs
Ans. b)
a.
If a passenger falls sick on
board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then PIC’s action
is:
a)
To land immediately.
b)
To inform health officer of
destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.
c)
To inform DGCA.
d)
To inform doctor on board.
Ans. b)
22. The
wreckage of crashed aircraft on R/W/ can be removed to:
a)
extricate dead animals &
persons b) extricate animals
& persons, dead or alive
c) Permit movement of other aircraft d) All of the above are correct
Ans. d)
23. An aircraft
force lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome, it can take off again:
a)
with the permission of DGCA
b)
without the permission of
controller of Aerodrome
c)
with the permission of nearest
aerodrome control tower
d)
Matter is to be reported to
DGCA as an incident
Ans. d)
24. Wake turbulence separation minima for
Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a heavy or a medium
aircraft is:
a)
2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 5 minutes d) Non of the above
Ans. a)
25. All flights above_________ flight levels are
to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather
Conditions: a) F 280 b) F 150 c) F 140 d) F 100
Ans. b)
a.
Dropping of paper leaf lets
require the permission of:
a.
Aerodrome b) Local District Magistrate. c) Operator. d) DGCA
Ans. c)
27. If there
is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through
a)
AIP
b) AIC c) NOTAM d) AIRAC
Ans. c)
28. The
highest flight level that can be flown in India is
a)
460 b) 450 c) 440 d) 400
Ans. a)
29. The duty
time of the trainee pilot:
a)
is calculated as per the FDTL
b)
is not affected by the FDTL
c)
is the time calculated from
take off to landing
d)
is from “chokes off” time to
“chokes on” time
Ans. a)
30. A pilot can fly an aircraft which is
not entered in the aircraft rating of his licence for endorsement on his
licence
a)
With in 5 nm of an
aerodrome b) With in Local Flying
Area of the aerodrome
c) Any where d)
Cannot fly
Ans. b)
31. A pilot
can fly in 30 consecutive days
a)
100 hrs PIC & 50 hrs as Co
pilot b) 100 hrs PIC & 30
hrs as Co pilot
c) 120 hrs PIC & 20 hrs as Co pilot d) 120 hrs PIC & 10 hrs as Co
pilot
Ans. b)
32. When an aircraft is being refueled, the
refueling must be stopped if a jet aircraft crosses with
in a distance of: a) 15 meters
b) 30 meters c) 43
meters d) 45 meters
Ans. c)
33. At an
aerodrome the aerobatics are to be carried out above 6000 feet
a)
Beyond 4 nm of perimeter of
aerodrome
b)
Within 2 nm of nearest
perimeter of aerodrome
c)
Beyond 5 nm of nearest
perimeter of aerodrome
d)
Beyond perimeter of aerodrome
Ans. b)
34. The FDR
has record of operation of preceding
a)
25 hours b) 20 hours c) 15 hours d) 10 hours
Ans. a)
35. The CVR
has the capability of recording information
a)
One hour or more b) At least 30 minutes
c) Atleast 15
mins d) There is no
minimum limit
Ans. b)
36. The CVR is
fitted in an aircraft to
a)
Monitor the performance of the
aircraft b) Help in accident
investigation
c) Both are correct
d) Non of the above
Ans. b)
37. The FDR is fitted in an aircraft to
a)
Monitor the performance of the
aircraft b) Help in accident
investigation
c) Both are correct
d) None of the above
Ans. c)
38. The most
effective way to use eyes at night is
a)
Focus only at dim lights at a
distance b) Flutter eyes rapidly
c) Scan slowly
to center off vision
d) Focus only on bright lights
Ans. c)
39. A report
received from an aircraft giving a position and /or met report is called
a)
Met report b) Position report c)
Air report d) All of the above
Ans. c)
40. During flight as a pilot you are
subjected to unlawful interference .On SSR you should to set
a)Mode A code
7500 b) Mode A code 7600
c) Mode A code 7700 d) Mode C code 7500
Ans. a)
41. ADC is not required
a)
Local flying area uptp
2000’ b) Within 5 nm of an
aerodrome upto 1000’
c) Aerodrome Traffic zone upto 1000’ d) Below 5000’ AMSL anywhere
Ans. b)
42. What
information is included in the third section of an Air report?
a)
Air Temperature, Icing,
Turbulence b) Spot
Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c) Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
d) ETA Destination
Ans. c)
43. A fresh
flight plan is to be filled if a scheduled flight is delayed by more than
a)
One hour b) 30 minutes c) 15 mins d) 5 mins
Ans. b)
44. The
designators for world wide ATS routes are in which colour
a)
White b) Red
& Green
c) Red, Green,
Blue & Amber d) Red, Green, Blue,
Amber & White
Ans. d)
45. The minimum wake turbulence time
separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a heavy
aircraft is: a) 2 minutes (b) 3
minutes (c) 5 minutes (d) not required
Ans. d)
46. The air
report contains following items:
a)
Air temperature, Turbulence,
Surface wind & aircraft Icing
b)
Turbulence, upper winds &
surface temperature
c)
Air temperature, Turbulence,
Upper winds & aircraft Icing
d)
All are correct
Ans. c)
47. An
aircraft can fly over a danger area
a)
If a NOTAM is issued that it is
not active b) With the
permission of ATC
c) Out side the stipulated time d) Cannot fly
at all
Ans. c)
48. At an
aerodrome special VFR may be authorized when
a)
Visibility falls below 5 km or
cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
b)
Visibility falls below 5 km or
cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
c)
Visibility falls below 8 km or
cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
d)
Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling
is less than 1000 feet
Ans. a)
49. A series
of red and green projectiles fired at an interval of 10 sec means
a)
aircraft is flying over danger
area b) aircraft is flying over
prohibited area
c) Aircraft is flying over restricted area d) All of the above are correct
Ans. d)
50. Mathura Refinery is a:
17. Danger Area b) Restricted
area c) Prohibited area. d) Terminal area.
Ans. c)
No comments:
Post a Comment