Regulations: Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper

Q1. In a precision approach, minimum height below which p-i-c cannot descend unless visual

reference to land is established

a) DA b) DH c) MDA d) MDH

Ans. (b)

Q2. In a non-precision approach, min height below which p-i-c may not descend is:

a) DA b) DH c) MDA d) MDH

Ans. (d)

Q3. OCA is calculated for

a) Precision approaches b) Non-precision approaches

c) Both a & b d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q4. Green Light on an aircraft is visible if seen from the front

a) At an arc of 110º to the starboard side b) At an arc of 110º to the port side

c) At an arc of 140º to the starboard side d) At an arc of 140º to the port side

Ans. (b)

Q5. ILS glide slope angle normally is set at : a) 2.5 º b) 3.0 º c) 3.5 º d) 4.0 º

Ans. (b)

Q6. An instrument runway served by ILS & visual aids intended for operations with a DH not

lower than 60m and RVR not less than 550m is a

a) Cat I runway b) Cat II runway c) Cat III runway d) Non-precision approach runway

Ans. (a)

Q7. Airfield safety altitude:

a) Is highest sector safety altitude with in 25NMs

b) Is highest sector safety altitude with in 10NMs

c) Provides clearance from obstructions with in 50NMs of aerodrome

d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q8. Enroute Jeppensen charts are based on ________________ projection

a) Lamberts b) Mercator c) Conical d) Polar

Ans. (a)

Q9. Fuel to be carried by a Turbo-jet aircraft when destination alternate is required is to fly to

destination aerodrome execute an approach and MA and thereafter:

a) To fly to alternate +45 mts at holding speed at 1500’

b) To fly to alternate +30mts at 1500’ make an approach and land

c) To fly to alternate via pre determined point + 45 mins at 1500’

d) To fly to alternate + fly for 60 mts at 1500’.

Ans. (b)

Q10. ATPL medical fitness and license validity period is

a) one year and five years b) six month & five years

c) one year and two years d) six months & two years

Ans. (d)

Q11. Cabin crew requirement for an airplane with seating capacity of more than 50 passengers is : a) One cabin crew for each unit of 50 passengers

b) Two cabin crew plus one cabin crew for each unit of 50 passengers units above 99

passengers

c) Non of the above d) both are correct

Ans. (b)

Q12. Vertical separation in RVSM airspace

a) is increased b) is decreased c) does not alter d) increases between F 290 & 410

Ans. (b)

Q13. On PAPI approach, if a pilot sees 3 lights white and green, the aircraft is

a) too high b) slightly high c) on correct approach d) slightly low

Ans. (b)

Q14. MDA is calculated for:

a) Precision approaches b) non-precision approach

c) Circling approaches d) both (b) & (c)

Ans. (d)

Q15. ETOPS stands for

a) Extra Time Operations b) Extended Turbojet Operations

c) Extend true engine operation d) Extended Range for Twin Engine Operations

Ans. (d)

Q16. An Air India aircraft is on an dry lease to I.F.A for military use. It will be known as a:

(a) Civil aircraft (b) Military aircraft

Ans. (b)

Q17. Registration of an aircraft is valid for:

(a) One year (b) Till cancelled by DGCA

Ans. (d)

Q18. Flight manual contains:

(a) Fuel and oil to be carried on board (b) Certificate of air worthiness

Ans. (d)

Q19. Succession of command is given by:

(a) The operator to pilots by a circular (b) DGCA (c) Central government (d) ICAO

Ans. (a)

Q20. Emergency check list is to be carried by:

(a) Scheduled flights (b) Non – scheduled operators

Ans. (c)

Q21. A pilot doing a test flight can carried by:

(a) On payment (b) Without payment

Ans. (c)

Q22. If a CPL holder is hospitalized for ___________ day his medical becomes invalid:

(a) 7 days (b) 10 days (c) 15 days (d) 30 days

Ans. (c)

Q23. Hyperventilation is caused due to:

(a) Decreased breathing rate (b) Increased hearty beat

Ans. (d)

Q24. OCA is Associated with:

(a) Precision Approaches (b) Circling approaches

Ans. (d)

Q25. Flt plan is to be filed in India in respect of:

(a) All flights other than scheduled flts (b) All flts other than local flts

Ans. (b)

Q26. Sun rise at Kalikut aerodrome is at 0550h. A VFR flight can take off from there at the

earliest at: (a) 0530 h (b) 0610 h (c) 0550 h (d) 0620 h

Ans. (c)

Q27. Hyper ventilation is caused due to lack of ___________ in blood system

(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon Dioxide (c) CO (d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q28. OCA circling approach is __________ the OCA precision approach:

(a) Lower than (b) Higher than (c) Equal to (d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q29. If an aerodrome minima is not established for IFR/VFR operations the minima to be

applied will be laid down by:

(a) AAI (b) DGCA (c) Operator (d) ICAO

Ans. (b)

Q30. Enroute flt levels are on: (a) QNH (b) QNE (c) QFE (d) QFF

Ans. (b)

Q31. To overcome severe turbulence pilot should maintain

(a) Constant flt attitude (b) Constant airspeed

Ans. (b)

Q32. At Aerodromes where no ATZ is established, the vicinity of aerodrome for VFR flts shall

be:

(a) 5 NMs from ARP upto 1000’ agl (b) 25 NMs from ARP upto 5000’ agl

Ans. (d)

Q33. Deviations from ICAO procedures are published in

(a) AIC (b) AIRAC (c) AIP (d) CARS

Ans. (c)

Q34. To get valid result, FDR data can be erased for testing purpose upto

(a) Last one hr of the recoding (b) Earliest one hr of the recording

Ans. (b)

Q35. Track separation is also known as separation

(a) Vertical (b) Lateral (c) Longitudinal (d) Composite

Ans. (b)

Q36. Abrupt head movements in IMC operations may cause:

(a) False horizon (b) Disorientation (c) Optical illusion (d) Hyperventilation

Ans. (b)

Q37. Flt. Engg. Is carried on board:

(a) If P-I-C desires so (b) If operator feels so

Ans. (c)

Q38. Flt plan is prepared by

(a) Taking any arbitrary points on route (b) Taking shortest distance to the destination

Ans. (c)

Q39. For safety reasons, a person should remain away from a jet engine by at least:

(a) 100’ (b) 200’ (c) 300’ (d) 500’

Ans. (b)

Q40. ADC is required for

(a) Scheduled flight only (b) Non-scheduled flight only

Ans. (c)

Q41. Vertical separation in CVSM airspaces above FL 290 is:

(a) 1000’ (b) 2000’ (c) 4000’ (d) 5000’

Ans. (b)

Q42. Decision Altitude is related to:

(a) Precision Approaches (b) Non precision approaches

Ans. (a)

Q43. A worker working close to the runway is thrown off and seriously injured by a jet blast

from a departing aircraft it is an

(a) Notifiable Accident (b) Notifiable incident

Ans. (a)

Q44. Minimum visibility required to fly at 12000’ for a VFR flt is

(a) 5 kms (b) 8 kms (c) 10 kms (d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q45. ATC services are provided to IFR flts and traffic information to VFR flts as far as practical

provided in class airspace: (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E

Ans. (d)

Q46. Cruising level available on a magnetic track of 300° are

(a) 115, 135, 155, 175 (b) 110, 130, 150, 160,

Ans. (c)

Q47. Route designator for domestic routes is:

(a) White (b) Amber (c) Blue (d) Red

Ans. (a)

Q48. Series of red and green projection fired at an interval of 10 sees means:

(a) Do not land for the time being (b) Exercise caution while landing

Ans. (c)

Q49. Black bars on a white dumbbell means:

(a) Land, take off and taxi on runways only

(b) Land, take off on runways only but other maneoures need not be confined to runways

& taxiways only

Ans. (b)

Q50. Navigation light are to be displayed by all aircraft in flight:

(a) From 30 mins after sunset till 30 mins before sunrise

(b) From sunset to sunrise (c) At all time (d) During dark night only.

Ans. (b)

Regulations

Tuesday, 23 February 2016

Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 18

No comments:

Post a Comment