1. How can an instrument Pilot best
overcome spatial disorientation?
a) Rely on
kinesthetic sense
b) Use a very
rapid
c) Read and
interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.
Ans. c)
2. The visibility reqd. when flying at (or)
below 3000’ in a controlled airspace
a)
5 kms b) 8 kms c) 10 kms
d) 3 kms
Ans. a)
3. The lateral separation reqd. if an A/C
is holding at a level
a)
10 NMs b) 10 mins
c) 5 mins d) 20 Nms
Ans. c)
4. Threshold lights are
a)
Red b) Green c) Yellow d)
Alternate Red & Green
Ans. b)
5. The 2nd section of an air
report contains
a)
ETA b) Met Info c) ATS Info d) Position Info
Ans. b)
6. Crossing of an ATS route should be at
angle of: a) 60º b) 90º c) 45º
d) 30º
Ans. b)
7. Information about facilities on an
aerodrome is found in
a)
AICs b) NOTAMs
c) AIRAC d) AIP
Ans. c)
8. Flight navigator shall be carried , if
the flight is more than _______ NM and no Nav aid is
present with in ______Nm of route
a) 300 NM, 600
NM b) 600 NM, 60 NM c) 600 NM, 30 NM. d) 300 NM, 60 NM
Ans. b)
9. Control Zone is from
a) Surface of earth to a specified upper limit b) 5000’ to unlimited
c) Atleast 700’ d) None of the above
Ans. a)
10. If an a/c
has R/T failure then it will acknowledge signals from the ATC during day by
a) Switching on/off Nav lights b) Rocking Wings
c) Flickering
Anti-collision lights d) Flying low
Ans. b)
11. Anti-collision
lights are required on aircraft above
a)
1500 kg b) 15000 kg
c) 5700 kgs d) all ac rudder
Ans. c)
12. The pilot
has to inform the ATC if the ETA changes by
a)
5 mins b) 3 mins
c) 10 mins d) 2 mins
Ans. b)
13. Night
flying hours can be logged between __________ mins after sunset to ________
mins
before sunrise: a) 20 mins b) 45 mins c) 1 hrs d) 15 mins
Ans. a)
14. Runaway
direction is measured from
a)
True North b) Compass North c)
Magnetic North d) North Pole
Ans. c)
15. If the marshaller
has either arm placed level with shoulder and moved laterally across throat
Indicates: a) Stop
b) Cut Engines c) Continue
Straight d) Turn Off
Ans. b)
16. The percentage of Co-pilot flying to be
counted towards the renewal of CPL as PIC is
______ %: a) 50 b) 80 c) 60 d)
100
Ans. a)
17. A Pilot is
more subject to spatial disorientation?
a) Kinesthetic senses are ignored.
b) Eye are moved often in the process of
cross-checking the flight instrument.
c)
Body signal are used to interpret flight attitude.
Ans. c)
18. The Min.
Separation above F 290 is: a) 2000’ b) 3000’ c) 4000’ d) 5000’
Ans. a)
19. If a
climbing a/c is crossing the level of another a/c the separation required is
a) 15 NMs
b) 15 Mins c) 20 NMs d) 5 Mins
Ans. b)
20. An aircraft accident has to be informed
to the DGCA with in ____ hrs
a. 12 b. 24
c. 48 d. 60
Ans. b)
21. The alert phase starts when an A/C
cleared to land; fails to land within _____ of estimated
time of landing: a) 3 mins b) 2 mins
c) 5 mins d) 10 mins
Ans. c)
22. Which
procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
(a) Reduce
head and eye movement to the extent possible.
(b) Rely on
the kinesthetic senses.
(c) Rely on
the indications of the flight instruments.
Ans. c)
23. Log books of flight crew personnel
shall be preserved for not less than ___ year’s last entry.
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5
d. 2
Ans. c)
24. In which
class of airspace does ATC provide separation for IFR traffic from all other
IFR
traffic, but relies on VFR traffic to provide its own separation from
all other traffic?
a) Class
B b) Class C c) Class D
d) Class E
Ans. c)
25. What
action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?
a) Breathe at
a slower rate by taking very deep breaths
b) Consciously
breathe at a slower rate than normal
c) Consciously
force yourself to taken deep breathe and breathe at a faster rate than normal
Ans. b)
26. No scheduled flight carrying passengers
is permitted to fly with in ___ NM of International
Border: a.15 km b. 5
NM c. 10 NM d. 15 NM
Ans. d)
27. What shape
and colour is a landing direction indicator?
a) A white capital T; land along the stem
towards the crosspiece
b)
An orange or red windsock, land towards the mast
c) A white or orange capital T; land
along the stem towards the crospiece
d) An orange wedge shape in 3 dimensions,
land towards the point of the wedge
Ans. c)
28. How would
you regonise an aiming point marking on a runway?
a) 2 thick yellow lines close to and
parallel to runway centreline
b) 2 thick white lines close to and
parallel to runway centreline
c) 2 pairs of yellow lines close to and
parallel to runway centreline
d) 2 pairs of white lines close to and
parallel to runway centreline
Ans. b)
29. On a normal aerodrome, what colour
should apron safety lines be painted?
a) White b) Yellow
c) Any colour which contrasts with surface
d) Any colour which contrasts with the aircraft stand markings
Ans. d)
30. What colour are (i) taxiway edge lights
and (ii) runway edge lights?
a) i) yellow ii) white
b) i)green ii) white
c) i) blue ii) white
d) i) green ii) yellow
Ans. c)
31. What lights will a pilot see from the
PAPI system if he is slightly low on the instrument approach glide slope?
Inboard means closer to the runway.
a) 3 white lights inboard of 1 red light
b) 3 red lights inboard of 1 white light
c) 1 white light inboard of 1 red light
d) 1red lights inboard of 3 white lights
Ans. b)
32. How can a pilot determine from a
distance that an aerodrome sign contains mandatory instructions?
a) The writing will be red on a white background
b) The writing will be white on a red background
c) The sign will be outlined in yellow and black stripes
d) The sign will be yellow on a black background, or vice versa
Ans. b)
33. How should a close part of a runway be
marked?
a) With yellow and black marker boards
b) With red and white marker boards
c) With a white cross on the surface
d) With white chevrons on the surface
Ans. c)
34. The pilot of an aircraft which has the
right of way must do certain things to reduce the risk of
collision. Apart from monitoring the other aircraft’ actions, what else
must he do?
a)
Maintain heading, speed, and
altitude b) Maintain heading
and altitude only
c) Maintain
altitude and speed only
d) Maintain heading and speed only
Ans. d)
35. Which of the following occurrences to
an aircraft in flight should be considered an aviation
accident?
a) An engine disintegrates but causes no further damage
b) A wingtip is broken off in a collision
c) One passenger is stabbed by another
d) A passenger suffers second degree burns from a loose gallery kettle
Ans. d)
36. Which of the following occurrences to
an aircraft in flight should be considered a serious
incident?
a) An engine disintegrates and prevents flap retraction
b) A passenger is taken ill with an infectious disease
c) The pilot takes avoiding action to prevent a near collision
d) A crew member falls in turbulence and breaks his leg
Ans. c)
37.
Which of the following occurrences to an aircraft in flight should be
considered an aviation
accident?
a) An extinguished engine fire damages the engine oil system
b) One pilot is incapacitated by food poisoning for 36 hours
c) An undercarriage leg requires
replacement after a heavy landing
d) An aborted take-off bursts 6 tyres
Ans. c)
38. For an aircraft having seating capacity
of 215 passengers, number of cabin attendants
required is_____. a. 6 b. 5
c. 4 d. 7
Ans. d)
39. What is the
minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000
feet in
Class G airspace at a speed of 120 knots
and in sight of the surface?
a)
8000 meters b) 5000 meters c) 1500 meters d) There is no minimum
Ans. b)
40. If pilot sees the symbol ‘X’ during SAR
operations, how can he tell the survivor that he
understands the message?
a) Fly low past the symbol and turn away sharply
b) Rock wings
c) Fly in circles around trhe symbol
d) Fly low past the symbol and climb steeply
Ans. b)
41. What is the minimum horizontal distance
which an aeroplane must stay away from cloud in
Class D airspace at 2000 feet in order to fly under VFR?
a)
1500 meters b) 1800 meters
c) No minimum
stated provided the aircraft has a flight visibility of 5000 meters
d) No minimum
stated provided the aircraft is in sight of the surface.
Ans. a)
42. What is correctly defined as “A
situation wherein apprension exits as to the safety of an
aircraft and its occupants?
a) The emergency phase b)
The uncertainty phase
c) The alert phase
d) The distress phase
Ans. c)
43. What mode A transponder setting means
an aircraft is suffering unlawful interference?
a)
7000 b) 7500
c) 7600 d) 7700
Ans. b)
44 If
navigation lights fail the action of the pilot is
a) To continue to destination b) land at nearest aerodrome
c) Switch on obstruction lights d) land at alternate
Ans. b)
45. UTC means
a) Universal Time Check b) Coordinated
Universal Time
c) United Time Check d) None
of the above
Ans. b)
46. Incubation period for typhus
is_________ days: a. 7 b. 5 c.10 d. 14
Ans. b)
47. An A/C
descending through the transition layer will report its height in
a) Flight Levels b) AMSL c) Altitude d)
AGL
Ans. c)
48. Publicity
material can be dropped from an A/C if it has the permission of
a) DM/ Commissioner of Police b)
DGCA c) Aerodrome officer d) ICAO
Ans. a)
49. Prohibition of flights over Mathura
refinery is:
a) With in a
radius of 1 NM b) With in a radius of
10 km
c) With in a
radius of 20 km d) With in a radius of
10 Nms
Ans. d)
50. Anti
collision lights are _________ lights
a) Steady Red b) Rotating Red c) Flashing Red d) Red & White
Ans. c)
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