1. Without visual aid,
a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:
a) Rising or
falling b)
Turning c) Motion reversal
Ans.
a)
2. What
is the principle objective of a rescue and firefighting service?
a) To prevent
the spread of fire to other aircraft and facilities
b) To minimize
the damage caused by fire
c) To extinguish
any fire with minimum delay
d) To save lives
Ans.
c)
3. An aircraft on a reciprocal track will
be separated by:
(a)
15 mins at the time of crossing
levels b) 15 mins at the time climb is
initiated
(c) 10 mins after the time levels
are crossed
(d) 10 mins at the time the climb
is initiated
Ans. (c)
4. If
a pilot sees 2.5 meter symbol “X” on the ground, What does it mean?
a) A survivor
requires medical assistance b) A
survivor requires general assistance
c)
Affirmative
d) Negative
Ans.
a)
5. Which
symbol indicates that the survivors have left the scene of the crash?
a) Y b) V c)
â d)
N
Ans.
c)
6. If
pilot sees 2.5 meter symbol “V” on the ground, what does it mean?
a) A survivor
requires medical assistance b) The
survivors
c) A survivor
requires general assistance d)
Negative
Ans.
c)
7. If you fly into Severe Turbulence which
flight condition should you intend to maintain –
a) Constant Airspeed b) Level
flt Altitude
c) Constant Altitude and Constant Speed d) Constant Ground speed
Ans.
a)
8. Identify Runway lighting on center line
lighting system:
a) Amber light from 3000’ to 1000 ft then Alternative Red and which
light to the end.
b) Alternative Red and White light from 3000 ft to 1000 ft and then
Red light to the end.
c) Alternative Red and White light from 3000’ to end of runway.
d) Red lights from 3000’ till end of runway.
Ans.
b)
9. Identify Taxi way lights associated with
center line lighting system:
a) Alternative Blue and White light covering from the center line of
the Taxiway.
b) Blue light covering from the center line of R/way to the center
line of Taxiway.
c) Alternate green & Yellow light
covering from center line of Runway to the center line
of Taxiway.
d) Yellow light covering from
center line of Runway to the center line of Taxiway.
Ans.
c)
10. For testing of Flt Recorder System:
a) Minimum of 1 hour recorded data must be erased to get a valid
test.
b) Total of not more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.
c) Total one hour of the oldest recorded data at the time of testing
may be erased.
d) Non of the above
Ans.
c)
11. En-route Altitude
will be determined for each stage of the route by taking 1000 ft of Terrain
clearance with in a width of: a) 5 Nms
b) 10kms c) 15Nms d) 20 Nms
Ans.
d)
12. Aerobatic can be done below Altitude 6000 ft at least at a
distance of:
a) 2 NMs from the Aerodrome
b) 4 NMs from the Aerodrome
c) 5 NMs from the Aerodrome
d) 6 NMs from the Aerodrome
Ans.
a)
13. Flt Duty Time in the event of being
extended shall be limited to:
a)
3 hrs b) 4 hrs
c) 6 hrs d) 8 hrs
Ans.
b)
14. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can
create the illusion of:
(a) Spinning in the opposite direction (b) Being in a nose up attitude
(c) Diving into the ground
Ans.
b)
15. A
flt- plan is required to be submitted to the appropriate ATS unit for: -
a) All Inst Flts b) All Inst and
Visual Flts
c) After 5 kms /5 Nms/
d) All controlled flts
Ans.
b)
16. Flt Crew on Domestic
Flt, the Flt time should not exceed more than ______ and No. of landing
restrictions is
a) 8 hrs and 4 landings
b) 8 hrs and 6 landings
c) 9 hrs and 3 landings
d) 6 hrs and 4 landings
Ans.
b)
17. All A/c from one FIR
to another FIR should contact ATS unit responsible for providing FIS
___________ mts prior to entry. a) 60
b) 20 c) 10 d) 30
Ans.
c)
18. The sensations which lead to spatial
disorientation during instrument flight conditions:
(a) Are
frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with
moderate instrument experience.
(b) Occur, in
most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to
instrument flight.
(c) Must be
suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight
instruments.
Ans.
c)
19. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged
constant rate turns in 1MC or simulated inst.
conditions can cause:
a) Pilot Disorientation b)
False Horizon
c) Illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis
d) Drowsiness or haziness
Ans.
a)
20. When instructed by ATC to hold short of
Runway pilot should stop:
a) With nose gear on hold line b) So that no part of the A/c extends
beyond hold line
c) So that the Flt Deck Area of A/c is even with the hold line
d) Wings are in line with hold line.
Ans.
b)
21. Take off Alternate
Aerodrome shall be located from the Aerodrome of departure not more than a
distance equal to the Flt of______ with one engine inoperative cruise speed.
a) 1 hr for 2 Eng A/c and 2 hrs or more for 3 Eng or more than 3 Eng
A/c
b) 30 minutes for 2 Eng A/c and one hrs for more than 3 Eng A/c
c) 2 hrs for 2 Eng A/c and 3 hr for 3 or more Eng A/c
d) 2 hrs for 2 Eng A/c & 1 hr for 3 or more engine A/c
Ans. a)
22. Lowest Transition Level in India is: a) F
40 b) F 50 c) F 45
d) F 55
Ans.
b)
23. Cosmic Radiations affect a pilot flying
over a height above:
a) F 430 b) F 450 c) F 470
d) F 490
Ans.
d)
24. A pilot has flown 120 hrs as p-i-c in last
29 consecutive days. He can fly _____ on 30th day:
a) 6 hrs as p-i-c b) 6 hrs as
co-pilot c) 8 hrs as Supernumerary
pilot d) None of the above
Ans.
c)
25. State aircraft includes:
a) Air India
Aircraft b) Military aircraft
c) All aircrafts
registered in India d) aircraft
operating in a state.
Ans.
b)
26. While
force landing an aircraft in a field due to engine failure, one person is
killed on
ground P-i-C can be prosecuted for
a) Murder b) culpable
homicide c) negligence d) cannot be
prosecuted
Ans.
d)
27. Instrument time includes:
a) Instrument flight time only. b) Inst. Ground time only c) Both a& b
d) Instrument Ground time upto 50% only and full Inst. flt. time
Ans.
c)
28. For landing minima
considerations, following values out of the multiple RVR values are taken into
account.
a) RVR at the beginning of runway b) RVR at the middle of runway
c) RVR at the end of the runway
d) Lowest value out of a), b) & c) above
Ans.
a)
29. Flight Duty time is calculated based on:
a) Chokes off to Chokes on time.
b) From the time you report for duty till 30 mts after landing.
c) From the time you report for the duty till 15 minutes after
switch off.
d) One hour before take off till 30 mins after landing
Ans.
c)
30. Maximum age up to which a pilot can fly
for remuneration is:
a)
55 yrs b) 60 yrs c) 65 yrs d)
70 yrs
Ans.
c)
31.
In IMC, on a route where reporting points are not given, the reporting will be
done:
(a) Every half an hour (b) Every hour
(c) First report after 30mins and subsequent every
60mins
(d) On as required basis
Ans. (c)
32. A pilot involved in an incident whose
flying has been stopped can start flying again
with the permission of : (a)
operator (b) DGCA (c) Central govt. (d) ATC
Ans. (b)
33. Separation is affected between:
a) Special VFR flts & IFR flts b) Special VFR flts & VFR flts
c) Both of the above d) None of the
above
Ans. a)
34. In case of an accident in the vicinity of
aerodrome, rescue & fire services are alerted by:
a) Control Tower b) App.
Cont. c) Area Control d) FIC
Ans.
a)
35. The following aircraft will be given
priority to land:
a) An aircraft
with VVIP on board b) An aircraft
with critical shortage of fuel
c) A scheduled
aircraft d) An
aircraft experiencing in flight bad visibility
Ans.
b)
36. PAPI lights are operated
a) During sunset
to sunrise time
b) 20 mts after
sunset to 20 mins before sunrise
c) In bad
visibility conditions only when associated runway is in use
d) Irrespective
of the visibility during day & night when associated runway is being used
Ans.
d)
37. STAR is a:
(a) Designated
IFR arrival route (b) Designated
VFR arrival route
(c) Designated
arrival route (d) All of the
above
Ans.
a)
38. HAT
for Precision approaches Cat II is: (a) Nil
(b) 50’ (c) 100’ (d) 200’
Ans. (b)
39. ICAO document dealing with Acts of
Unlawful Interference is
a) Annex 2 b) Annex 6 c) Annex 14
d) Annex 17
Ans.
d)
40. Significant differences between national regulations and
ICAO procedures are published in
a) AIRAC b) AIP c) NOTAMs
d) AICs
Ans.
b)
41. Apron
is an area on aerodrome where following activities take place:
(a)
Loading /unloading of passengers, mail and cargo only.
(b)
Parking of aircraft only.
(c)
Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(d)
loading/unloading of passengers, mail and cargo, fueling, parking or
maintenance.
Ans. (d)
42. When
body temp. is low, its called:
(a)
Hyperventilation (b) Antokinensis (c) Hypothermia (d) Hypoxia
Ans. (c)
43. Incubation
period of yellow fever is ______ days.
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
Ans. a)
44. All
aircraft after take off are to turn __________ for a circuit pattern
(a)
Right (b) into the wind (c) left
(d) along the wind
Ans.
c)
45. Met
report contains
(a)
Air temp, turbulence, spot mind (b) Air temp, clouds above, turbulence
(c)
Air temp, cabin pressure, minds
Ans. (a)
46. The west end of a runway oriented east and
west is numbered
(a) 09 (b) 90 (c) 27 (d)
270
Ans.
a)
47. Min. width of runway centre line stripes
for Cat I runways is :
(a) 0.3mts (b) 0.6mts (c) 0.45mts (d) 0.9mts
Ans.
c)
48. During
an initial climb in uncontrolled airspace, the altimeter setting should be:
(a) The local QNH (b) The local
QFE
(c) The Standard Pressure Setting (d) Any desired value
Ans.
a)
49. A
VFR flt cannot be operated:
(a) At F120 (b) At transonic speed
(c) 100 NMs from
the seashore in uncontrolled airspace
(d) Across
international borders
Ans.
b)
50. Slaughtering
of animals is not permitted with in _______ of ARP
(a) 10 kms (b) 10 NMs
(c) 20 kms (d) 20 NMs
Ans.
a)
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