Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 15

1. Advance notification for establishment of a VOR at an airport shall be notified by means of

a) AIRAC b) AIP c) NOTAM d) AIC

Ans.  a)

2. A pilot involved in an incident whose flying has been stopped can start flying again with the

     permission of :      (a) Operator      (b) DGCA       (c) Central govt.      (d)     ATC

Ans.  (b)

3. What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

(a)    Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.

(b)   Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.

(c)    Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.

Ans.     (b)  

4. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

(a)    Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.

(b)   Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected.

(c)    The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.

Ans.     (b)

5. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions:

(a)    Are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience.

(b)   occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to

      instrument flight.

(c)    Must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.

Ans.     (c)

6. Where taxiway holding positions have not been established, aircraft waiting to enter an active runway 1000m of length should normally hold.

a) Clear of the maneuvering area           b) 30 m from the edge of the runway                                                                       

c) 50 m from the edge of the runway     d) 60 m from the edge of the runway

Ans.  c) 

7. How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

(a)    Rely on kinesthetic sense.        (b) Use a very rapid cross-check.

(c) Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.

Ans.     (c)

8. How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

(a)    Use a very rapid cross-check.

(b)   Properly interpret the flight instrument and act accordingly.

(c)    Avoid banking in excess of 30º.

Ans.     (b)

9. Two a/c flying in the vicinity of aerodrome under radar control will be separated by :

    (a)  15 nm           (b) 10 nm         (c) 5 nm         (d) 3 nm

Ans.  c)

10. The amount of fuel carried on board any propeller driven aeroplane  at the commencement of

      a day VFR flight  must be sufficient ,having regard to  the meteorological conditions  and

     foreseeable delays that are expected in flight , to fly to the destination aerodrome

     a) And then fly for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.                                              

     b) And then fly for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

     c) Then to a specified alternate and then for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

     d) Then to a specified alternate and then for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Ans.  c)

11. Width of Taxy track centre line markings is: a) 6 cms b) 30 cms c) 10 cms d) 15 cms

Ans.  d)

12. CTA extends from:

a) Ground level to a specified upper limit

b) At least 700’ from the surface of the earth to unlimited

c) At least 5000’ from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit

d) None of the above

Ans.  b)

13. Speed limitations in class ‘A’ airspace are :

       a) 250kts above 10,000’ AMSL       b) 250 kts below 10,000’ AMSL

       c) Not applicable                              d) Recommended in high density areas

Ans.  c)

14.  A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation?

(a)    Kinesthetic senses are ignored.

(b)   Eye are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.

(c)    Body signal are used to interpret flight attitude.

Ans.     (c)

15. RVSM is:

      a) Applicable in India                       b) Not applicable in India

      c) Applicable to VFR flts only         d) Applicable to military aircraft only

Ans.  a)

16. A Boeing 737 aircraft fails to arrive over DPN at 1135 UTC .His ETA DPN is 1105 UTC .It

      will be a:       a)  Distress phase   b) Alert phase   c) Uncertainity  phase    d) ALERFA

Ans.  c)

17. Aircraft that has right –of-way shall:

      a) Maintain heading and speed   b) Turn right   c) Turn left   d) Take no action

Ans.  a)

18. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

(a)    Reduce head and eye movement to the extent possible.

(b)   Rely on the kinesthetic senses.

(c)    Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.

Ans.     (c)

19. In class ‘D’ airspace, a VFR Flt at F120 requires inflight visibility of:

      a) 5kms b) 1.5kms c) 3kms   d) 8kms

Ans.  d)

20. On a magnetic track of 000º, an IFR flt can fly at:

       a) F 95 b) F120  c) F 170 d) F180

Ans.  c)

21. SIDs are used for:

      a) IFR departures at busy aerodromes              b) VFR flights only

      c) For all aerodrome traffic                               d) For all arriving aircraft

Ans.  a)

22. RVR for a runway filed by an operator is 500m. Threshold RVR is reported

to be 800m. It is:

(a) above filed minima

(a)          below filed minima

(b)         with in minima if mid RVR is above 450m

(c)          with in minima if both mid RVR and stop end RVR are above 500m.

Ans. a)

23. Hypoxia can be controlled by:

      (a) Using oxygen above 5000 AMSL during day time        (b) Breathing in a bag.

      (c) Using oxygen above 5000 AMSL during night time    

      (d) Opening windows & air vents

Ans.     (c)

24. Decompression sickness causes:

      (a) Lack of CO2 in blood.            (b) Lack of O2 in blood.

      (c) N2 babbles in tissues.              (d) Over breathing 

Ans.     (c)

25. Flight plan shall be submitted atleast ______ mins before departure

      a) 30mins   b) 60mins    c) 45mins   d) 90mins

Ans.  b)

26. Annex dealing with operation of Aircraft is

      a) Annex 2 b) Annex 6 c) Annex 11 d) Annex 14

Ans.  b)

27. AIP contains information on:

      a) Aerodromes b) Notams c) AIRACs  d) AICs

Ans.  a)

28. Angle of intersection of Rapid Exit Taxiways with runway should not be more than:

      a) 30º  b) 25º  c) 45º  d) 60º

Ans.  c)

29. Length of runway centre line stripe + gap should not be less than

      a) 60 m b) 75 m c) 30 m d) 50 m

Ans.  d)

30. A major early symptom of Hypoxia is

      a) An increased sense of well being   b) A marked suppression of mental alertness

      c) A sense of fear                                d) A sense of physical weakness

Ans.  a)

31. What is the minimum flight visibility for flight in VFR if an aircraft is flying at 5000 feet in

       Class G airspace at a speed of 120 knots and in sight of the surface?

       a) 8000 metres   b) 5000 metres   c) 1500 metres    d) There is no minimum

Ans.  b)

32. What is the maximum speed for an aircraft to fly under VFR at 8000 feet in class G airspace

       in India? a) 180 knots   b) 250 knots   c) 350 knots   d) There is no limit

Ans.  b)

33. In Cat II ILS approach, what is DH & RVR?

      (a) 100’ and upto 1500’             (b) Below 200’ and 550m  

      (c) 200’ and upto 350m             (d) 100’ & upto 350m

Ans.     (d)

34. What is the minimum cruise altitude under IFR (over non-mountainous terrain) allowed by ICAO?

a) 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of its position

b) 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 2000 metres of its position

c) 1000 feet above the highest fixed object within 8 km of its position

d) 1500 feet above the highest fixed object within 600 metres of its position

Ans.  c)

35. What mode A transponder setting means an aircraft is suffering unlawful interference?

       a) 7000   b) 7500   c) 7600   d) 7700

Ans.   b)

36. If a military aero plane flies alongside you and rocks its wings, what should you do?

      a) Follow it                                                   b) Call on 121.50 MHz  

      c) Select 7700 on your transponder              d) All the above

Ans.  d)

37. What does a steady red light from ATC indicate to the pilot of an aircraft in flight?

       a) Go-around                    b) Do not land, divert

       c) Land at this aerodrome after receiving a green light

       d) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

Ans.  d)

38. What light signal indicates to the pilot of an aircraft in the air that he may land?

       a) A steady green light               b) A flashing green light

       c) Both (a) and (b)                      d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Ans.  a)

39. What signal should the pilot use to tell his ground handler that his brakes are on?

       a) Show his open hand then close it        b) Show his closed hand hen open it

       c) Cross his hands in front of his face    

       d) Place his crossed hands in front of his face then uncross them

Ans.  a)

40. What does a white dumbbell in the signal area mean?

       a) Landing prohibited

       b) Take-offs, landings and taxiing must be made on paved surface only

       c) Take-offs and landings must be made on paved surfaces, taxiing may be on grass

       d) Make all take-offs, landings and taxiing on runways & taxiways only.

Ans.  d)

41. What ground signal indicates the runway in use to an aircraft in the air?

       a) A white T in the signal area                  b) White numbers in the signal area

       c) Either (a) or (b)                                     d) Neither (a) or (b)

Ans.  a)

42. In the signals area there is a red square with a yellow diagonal. What does this mean?

      a) The traffic pattern is right hand 

      b) All turns after take-offs and landings must be to the right

      c) Landing prohibited      d) Take special care during approach and landing

Ans.  d)

43. What is defined as “Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reaction

      of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth’s surface”?

      a) An aircraft    b) A flying machine    c) An airship     d) An aeroplane

Ans.   a)

44. Which type of controlled airspace touches the ground?

         a) A Terminal Control Area  b) An Airway  c) A Control Zone  d) CTA

Ans.  c)

45. What Air Traffic Service gives a pilot information about possible conflicting traffic but no

       advice as to the correct action to take to avoid it?

       a) Flight Advisory Service      b) Flight Information Service

       c) Radar Advisory Service & Radar Information Service

       d) Radar Control & Procedural Control

Ans.  b)

46. In which Class of controlled airspace does ATC provide separation to IFR traffic from all

      other traffic, no separation between VFR traffic, but VFR traffic must have clearance to enter

      the airspace?  a) Class B          b) Class C            c) Class D              d) Class E

Ans.  b)

47. ATC may provide an Approach Control Service. For what traffic is it primarily provided?

      a) All aircraft arriving at the aerodrome only

      b) All aircraft arriving or departing the aerodrome

      c) Controlled traffic arriving at the aerodrome only

     d) Controlled traffic arriving or departing the aerodrome only

Ans.  d)

48. What is defined as “A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so

      far as is practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flights plans. “?

      a) Air Traffic Control Service             b) Air Traffic Advisory Service

      c) Flight Information Service              d) Air Traffic Alerting Service

Ans.  b)

49. Cessna aircraft call sign VGA gives a call that he has a lot of smoke in the cockpit and is

       going to land at a nearby field. It will be a:

       a) Alert phase   b) Uncertainty phase  c) Distress phase d) Non of the above

Ans. c)

50. The aerobatics shall be carried out not below: a) 6000’   b) 2000’  c) 5000’  d) 1000’

Ans.  b)