Tuesday, 23 February 2016

Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 10

1.  Class ‘G’ airspace in India
      a)  Is a controlled airspace where Air traffic advisory service is provided to both IFR & VFR
           flights.
a)      Is an uncontrolled airspace where only flight information service is provided to both IFR
     & VFR flights .
      c) Is an airspace of defined dimension where IFR flights are provided Air Traffic Advisory
          service and VFR flight receive flight information service.
      d) Includes controlled and uncontrolled airspaces
Ans. b)

2.  Air plane A is overtaking airplane B. which airplane has the right-of-way?
      a)  Airplane A; pilot should alter course to the right to pass.
      b)  Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right. 
      c)  Airplane B; the pilot expect to be passed on the left.
      d) None of the above
Ans.     b)

3. “Controlled Airspace “means airspace of defined dimensions within which             
a) Control Zone regulations are in force   b) Security regulations are in force.                                                                                                                 
c) Special VFR flight only is permitted    d) An ATC service is provided.
Ans.  d)

  4. A series of green flashes directed at an aircraft means respectively  
     
In flight
On the ground
a) Cleared to land ;
Cleared to taxi
b) Return for landing ;
Cleared for take off.
c) Return for landing ;
Cleared  to taxi
d) Cleared to land;
Cleared for take-off
Ans.  c)   

5.  A flashing white light directed at an aircraft on the maneuvering area of an airport means
a) Stop                     b) Return to starting point on the airport.                                                               
c) Cleared to taxi.    d) Taxi clears of landing area in use.
Ans.  b) 

 6.  Blinking runway lights advises vehicles and pedestrians to                         
a) Return to the apron
b) Vacate the runways immediately.
c) be aware that an emergency is in progress ; continue with caution .
d) be aware that an emergency is in progress ; hold your position .
Ans.  b)

7. The starboard navigation light of an aircraft is visible over an arc of:
a) 70 Degrees   b) 140 degrees   c) 110 degrees    d) 220 degrees
Ans.  c)
8. Under what circumstances should an aircraft giving way alter its course to the left?
    a) At all times                                                   b) Only when overtaking in the air
    c) Only when overtaking on the ground          d) Never
Ans.  c)  

9. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement
    applies?
    a) Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
    b) Aero planes shall give way to power-driven heavier –than-air aircraft.                                            
    c) Gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.
    d) Power-driven heavier –than-air aircraft shall give way to Gliders
Ans.  d)

10. Smoking on a private aircraft is permitted:
a) Provided the owner has no objection.
b) Provided permitted by the aerodrome officer.
c) Without restricted if no passengers are carried.
d) Only if the certificate of airworthiness of the aircraft permits
Ans.  d)

11. An aircraft without registration markings can be flown only:
a) If the sale deed is not yet completed.
b) For purpose of test flight only, prior to purchase.
c) If it is used for Govt. Work.
d) If specially permitted in writing by the central govt.
Ans.  d)

12. A Control Area normally is controlled airspace extending upwards from
      a) 2,200 feet above the surface of the earth.
      b) 7,00 feet above the surface of the earth.
      c) The surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
      d) A specified height above the surface of the earth, which should not be less than 200 mts
Ans.  d)

13. Photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from:
a) Aerodrome office           b) DGCA         c) Central Govt.       d) Defence Ministry
Ans.  b)

14. Air Traffic Advisory Service is provided in airspace classified as
      a) Class E   b) Class F   c) Class G    d) Class A
Ans.  b)

15. When two power driven aircraft are in crossing course, the responsibility of avoiding collision, rests with:
a) Heavier a/c                                                    b) Lighter a/c
c) The a/c which has the other a/c to its right.  d) The a/c which has the other a/c to its left.
Ans.  c)

16. The a/c approaching to land at an aerodrome changes its altimeter subscale setting to QNH setting while crossing:
a) Transition altitude b) Transition level c) Sector safety altitude d) Route safety altitude
Ans.  b)

17. An a/c flying low due to thunder storm for safety reasons can be sued by:
a) State Govt.  b) Municipal Corporation
c) Owner of the property over which it is flying    d) Cannot be sued.
Ans.  d)

18. During the distress phase an a/c:
a) Switches on and off its landing lights          b) Speaks MAY DAY on R/T
c) Speaks PAN on R/T.                                    d) Selects SSR mode a code 7000.
Ans.  b)

19. When flying outside a regular route, an aircraft should report its position to the appropriate ATS unit.
a) first report after 30 mins and subsequent after 60 mins   b) Every one hour.
c) On crossing every NDB or VOR Station.                        d) As and when convenient
Ans.  a)

20. Min. width of runway centre line stripes for Cat I runways is:
a) 0.3mts b) 0.6mts c) 0.45mts   d) 0.9mts   
Ans.  c)

21. Aircraft intending to fly in formation:
a) Cannot fly                                           b) Can fly during daytime
c) Can fly with permission for DGCA   d) Can fly with prior arrangement
Ans.  a)

22. A horizontal white dumbbell displayed in signal area means:
a) Pilot to exercise caution due bad state of the maneuvering area.
b) Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runway and taxiways only.
c) Aircraft are required to land/take off on runway only but may use grass area for taxing.
d) Aerodrome closed.
Ans.  b)

23. An alternate aerodrome means:
a) An aerodrome specified in the flight plan t o which a flight may proceed when it 
    becomes in advisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.
b) Any aerodrome other than the aerodrome of intended landing which may be used by
    an aircraft.
c) An aerodrome where an aircraft may be forced to land due to unavoidable 
    circumstances.
d) An aerodrome situated at the same location other than the aerodrome of intended
    landing.
Ans.  a)

24. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even during broad day light, when aircraft are flown:
a) At or above F150                      b) Within controlled airspace.
c) At or above F 200.                    d) In designated areas or designated routes.
Ans.  a)

25. Flight must invariably be conducted in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules, even during broad day light, when aircraft are flown:
a) In class ‘D’ airspace                b) Within controlled airspace.
c) In class A airspace                  d) In designated areas or designated routes.
Ans.  c)

26.  The “Certificate of Airworthiness” of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an aircraft:
a) Is involved in an accident/incident.
b) Is modified or repaired without the consent of the Director General.
c) Is modified or repaired otherwise than in accordance with the provisions of the rules.
d) In involved in a serious violation of the rules contained in the aircraft rules..
Ans.  c)
.
27. While flying over high terrain or in mountainous regions, as IFR flight shall be flown at a level which is at least.
a) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft.
b) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft.
c) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft.
d) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 kms of the estimated position of the aircraft.
Ans.  d)

28. Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:
            (a) rising or falling      (b) turning           (c) motion reversal
Ans.     (a)

29.  A person died of cholera, his body can be brought to India if:
a) Packed in a wooden box.
b) Cannot be brought.
c) Sealed in zinc and packed in a wooden box. Closed in a shell of zinc, joints sealed, shell
    enclosed in a teak wooden box which is enclosed in zinc lined box, filled with saw dust
    impregnated with carbolic powder.
d) Permitted by the DGCA.
Ans.  c)

30. Flight Duty Time can be extended by______ hrs in a day:
a) 3 hrs   b) 4 hrs c) 5 hrs   d) 6 hrs
Ans.  b)
31. A light aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft requires a spacing of:
a) 2 min.    b) 3 min.      c) 5 min        d) 4 min
Ans.  a)

32. FDTL for 2 crew international flight is ______ hrs and _____ landing.
a) 10 hrs and 3 landings.    b) Three hrs and 9 landings.
c) 9 hrs and 3 landings.      d) 8 hrs and 3 landings.
Ans.  c)

33. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of:                 
a) Aerodrome   b) Local District Magistrate.  c) Operator   d) DGCA.
Ans.  b)

34. Emergency µHF frequency is:                                         
a) 121.5 MHz   b) 256.0 MHz   c) 243.0 MHz   d) 127.0 MHz
Ans.   (c)

35. DME separation between a/c on same track, same level and in same direction is:          
a) 10 NM.   b) 20 NM.  c) 15 NM.  d) 5 NM
Ans.   (b)

36. Separation between climbing a/c , which is on crossing track of another a/c is: 
a) 10mins   b) 15mins    c) 5mins   d) 20mins.
Ans.    (b)

37. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause:
(a) pilot disorientation       (b) false horizon           (c) elevator illusion
Ans.     (a)

38. Information about rules of the air is contained in _________ICAO document.    
a) Annex 2    b) Annex 11    c) Annex 14     d) Doc 4444.
Ans.      (a)

39. A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground
      lights and stars can create an illusion known as:
            (a) Elevator illusions       (b) autokinesis           (c) false horizons
Ans.     (c)

40. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of:
            (a) Tumbling backwards   (b) a nose up attitude     (c) a descent with the wing level
Ans.     (a)

41. An a/c climbing through the transition layer will reports its height in:
a) Flight Levels   b) AMSL    c) Altitudes       d) AGL
Ans. a)

42. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of:
(a)    spinning in the opposite direction
(b)   being in a nose up attitude
(c)    diving into the ground
Ans.     (b)

43. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
(a)    Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.
(b)   Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot’s reactions are affected.
(c)    The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.
Ans.     (b)

44. Longitudinal separation between two a/c on same track is:
a) 10mins   b) 15mins   c) 05mins      d) 20mins
Ans. b)

45. Separation above F410 is: a) 1000’         b) 3000’         c) 2000’              d) 4000’
Ans. c)

46. Rashtrapati Bhawan is a
a) Danger Area           b) Restricted Area         c) Prohibited Area         d) Non of the above
Ans. c)

47. An aircraft accident has to be informed to the DGCA with in:
a) 12 hrs           b) 24 hrs          c) 48 hrs             d) 60 hrs
Ans.     b)

48. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions:
(a)    are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with
moderate instrument experience.
(b)   occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to
 instrument flight.
(c)    must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight
instruments.
Ans.     (c)

49. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for not less than ___ years after completion: a) 1 yr                b) 3 yr                     c) 5 yr                     d) 2 yr
Ans.     c)


50. Incubation period for typhus is:
a) 7 days     b) 5 days             c) 10 days                d) 14 days

Ans. d)

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