1. If a passenger falls sick on board an
A/C and he is suspected of any infectious disease then
PIC’s action is
a) To land immediately
b) To inform health officer of destination aerodrome atleast two hrs
before landing
c) To inform doctor on board
d)
off load passenger
Ans.
b)
2. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the
permission of
a) Aerodrome officer b) Local District Magistrate c) Operator d) DGCA
Ans.
b)
3. If you see an aircraft on relative
bearing of 270º with its red light than PIC’s action is
a) Turn right b) Turn left c) Maintain heading and Speed d) Give way
Ans.
c)
4. An aircraft is crossing at right angle
from left to right then the light seen by you, as PIC is
a) Yellow b) Red c) Green
d) White
Ans.
c)
5. If an aircraft in circuit has R/T
failure then the visual indication by pilot to acknowledge ATC
signals is: a) Rock ailerons b)
Circle over aerodrome c) Rock wings d) land
Ans.
c)
6. Runaway direction is measured from
a) True North b) Compass North c) Magnetic North d) North Pole
Ans.
c)
7. Survivors on land requiring assistance
indicate it to A/C in air by
a) W b) X c) Y d) V
Ans.
d)
8. Move extended arms down wards in a
patting gesture, moving wands up and down from waist
to knees: (a) Stop (b) Land at helipad (c) Slow down (d) Cut engines
Ans.
c)
9. Emergency VHF frequency is
a) 118.6 MHz b) 122.7 Mhz c)
121.5 MHz d) 127.0 MHz
Ans.
c)
10. Either arm
or hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm down ward indicates
a)
Slow down b) Cut engine c)
Start engine d) Stop
Ans.
b)
11. Minimum
transition altitude in India for an aerodrome is
a)
4000’ AMSL b) 4000’ AGL c) 3000
above ground level d) 3000’ AMSL
Ans. a)
12. An
aircraft can fly over a danger area
a)
If a NOTAM is issued that it is
not active b) With the
permission of ATC
c) Out side the stipulated time d) Cannot fly
at all
Ans.
c)
13. DME
separation between A/C on same track, same level and in some direction is
a) 10 NM
b) 20 NM c) 15 NM d) 5 NM
Ans.
b)
14. While
crossing ATS routes the crossing will be done at _____ angles to the route.
a) 70º
b) 110º c) 90º d) 45º
Ans.
c)
15. Lateral
separation between two aircraft, one climbing and another holding is
a)
10 mins b) 15 mins
c) 20 mins d) 5 mins
Ans.
d)
16. Separation
between climbing A/C, which is on crossing track of another A/C is
a)
10 mins b) 15 mins c) 5 mins
d) 3mins
Ans.
b)
17. ATC will
inform RCC when A/C does not land within _________ minutes of ETA.
a)
30 mins b) 10 mins
c) 5 mins d) 20 mins
Ans.
a)
18. If
apprehension exists as to the safety of A/C and its occupants then it is called
as
a)
Distress phase b) Uncertainty phase c) Alert phase d) None
of the above
Ans. c)
19. Within
controlled airspace below 3000’ feet, visibility reqd. for VFR is
a)
3000 mts b) 5000 mts c) 3700 mts
d) 1500 mts
Ans.
b)
20. Route
Navigation charges are based on
a) Length of ac b) Number of
passengers c) All up weight of ac d) nav-aids Enroute
Ans.
c)
21. Operator should instal CVR capable of
retaining information during atleast last ________ of
its operation: a) 30 mins b) 1 hr
c) after 01 Jan 2003 2 hrs d) 3 hrs
Ans.
c)
22. On X-country flight where reporting points
are not available then reporting shall be made
after every ________ min in.
a)
15 mins b) 30 mins c) 45 mins d) first report after 30 mins and subsequent
after 60 mins
Ans.
d)
23. You are
descending from F-200 to 12000 over Delhi. 13000’ will be reported as_______
a) Altitude b) F 130 c) AMSL d) AGL
Ans.
b)
24.
Information about aerodromes is contained in _________ document.
a)
Annex 2 b) Annex 11 c) Annex 14 d) Doc 4444
Ans.
c)
25. Jeppesen charts widely use projection
a)
Mercator b) Lamberts c) Oblique Mercator d) Polar Stereographic
Ans.
b)
26 Second
section of ‘Air Report’ contains
a)
ATC information b) Position reports c) met information d) route information
Ans.
c)
27. 360º (M)
is a:
a)
East bound track in
Semicircular system. b) West bound
track in Semicircular system
c) North bound track in Semicircular
system d) South bound track in
Semicircular system
Ans.
a)
28. Approach Control Service is provided
with in: a) CTA b) CTR c) CTZ d) TMA
Ans.
b)
29.
For an operator who has not filed minima, visibility minima for take
off, if the aerodrome is
equipped with VOR is _______ Km: a) 5 kms b) 3.7 kms
c) 1.5 kms d) 3 kms
Ans.
b)
30. Mathura
Refinery is a _________ area.
a)
Danger Area b) Restricted Area c) Prohibited Area d) Terminal Area
Ans.
c)
31. FDTL for training flights does not
restrict:
a) Flight Time b) Flight Duty
Time c) Number of landings d) All of the above
Ans.
c)
32. The wing tip vortices generated by a
heavy aeroplane can cause a lighter aircraft
encountering them to
a) Go out of control
b) Continue descent even when maximum power is applied.
c) Sustain structural damages d) Experience any of the above situations.
Ans.
d)
33. Wake
turbulence caused by a departing large aeroplane begins
a) Before rotation b) With rotation.
c) After becoming airborne. d)
With full power
application.
Ans.
b)
34. Flight time/flight duty time
limitations shall be applicable to:
a)
P-i-c, Co-pilot, Flt Engg &
Navigators only b) Pilots and cabin
crews only
c) P-i-C and Co-pilot
only d)
all crew personnel
Ans.
a)
35. The maneuvering area of an airport is
that area
a) Normally
referred to as the ramp or apron.
b) Which
includes the apron, taxiways and runways?
c) Used when
taxiing to and from the parking area.
d) Used for
taxiing ,taking off and landing .
Ans.
d)
36. When two aircraft are converging at
approximately the same altitude, which statement
applies?
a) Gliders shall
give way to helicopters. b)
Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters.
c) Helicopters
shall give way to aeroplanes. d)
Helicopters shall give way to gliders.
Ans.
d)
37.
Two aircraft are on approach to land, the following aircraft shall:
a) Climb. b) Descend. c) Alter heading to the right. d) Alter heading to the left.
Ans.
a)
38.
Where ATIS is available the information which should be included on
first contact with
ATC is the
a) Phrase “With the numbers “ b) Phrase “ATIS received “
c) Phrase “With the information “. d) ATIS phonetic identifier.
Ans.
d)
39.
What is lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?
a) 1,000 feet AGL b) 1,500 feet
AGL c) 2,000 feet AGL d) 6,000 feet AGL
Ans.
c)
40. The maximum duty time limit per day
extension is
a) 4 hrs b) 2 hrs c) 6 hrs d) 8 hrs
Ans.
a)
41.
Control Zone is from
a) Surface of earth to a specified upper limit b) 5000’ to unlimited
c) At least 700’ d) None of
the above
Ans.
a)
42. Two a/c flying in the vicinity of
aerodrome under radar control will be separated by :
(a) 15 nm (b) 10 nm (c) 5 nm (d) 3 nm
Ans.
c)
43.
Anti-collision lights are required on aircraft above
a) 1500 kg b) 15000 kg
c) 5700 kgs d) all ac rudder
Ans.
c)
44. An aircraft
cruising VFR in level flight above F 290 on a track of 290 deg M shall be flown
at
a)
F295, F315, F335, F355 b) F320, F360, F400, F440
c) F310, F350, F390, F430 d) F300, F340, F380, F420
Ans.
b)
45. An aircraft
flying in accordance with Special VFR would be flying within
a) A Control Zone. b) An Aerodrome Traffic
Zone.
c) A Terminal Control Area.
d) An airway.
Ans.
a)
46. A series of red flashes directed at an aircraft means
respectively:
|
In flight
|
on the
ground
|
|
a)
airport unsafe , do not land ;
|
taxi
clear of landing area in use
|
|
b)
give way to other aircraft and
continue circling ;
|
Stop.
|
|
c) do not
land for time being ;
|
return to
starting point on airport .
|
|
d) you
are in prohibited area , alter course ;
|
stop
|
Ans.
a)
47. A steady green light directed at an aircraft means
respectively
|
In flight
|
on the
ground
|
|
a)
cleared to land ;
|
cleared
to taxi
|
|
b) return
for landing ;
|
cleared
to taxi .
|
|
c) return
for landing ;
|
cleared
for take off .
|
|
d)
cleared to land ;
|
cleared
for take off .
|
Ans.
d)
48. VFR flight
in class F airspace above 3000’ msl and below 10,000 ‘MSL.
a) Provided flight visibility is 1500 m. b) Provided flight visibility is 3000
m.
c) Provided flight visibility is 5000 m. d) Provided flight visibility is 8000
m.
Ans.
c)
49. A prohibited area means an area over
which:
a) Flight within
2 miles is prohibited. b)
Flight of aircraft is totally prohibited.
c) Low flying is
prohibited. d) Only instrument flying practice can
be done.
Ans.
b)
50. An aircraft should be refueled:
a) Inside a
hanger.
b) Inside a
hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate precautions.
c) In the open.
d) Wherever
adequate facility exists.
Ans.
c)
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