Tuesday, 23 February 2016

Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 21

1. The Hijacking issue was dealt during which of the following conventions
a) Chicago convention - 1944
b) Montreal convention
c) Warsaw convention – carriage of goods
d) Tokyo convention

2. Purple airspace stands for
a) Class A
b) Class C
c) Class D
d) Class E

3. Steady Red light to an aircraft from Aerodrome control to aircraft indicates
a) Notwithstanding any previous instructions do not land for the time being
b) Continue circling
c) Aerodrome unsafe
d) Stop

4. With palms inwards and arms extended moving in a waving motion indicates

a) Normal Stop
b) Chocks out
c) Chocks in
d) None of the above

5. Holding point is colored _______ and _______ lines are near the runway
a) White, dashed
b) White, solid
c) Yellow, dashed
d) Yellow, solid
     
6. Controlled airspace is defined as
a) Only FIR with ATS provided
b) Only FIR/UIR with ATS provided
c) Only UIR with ATS provided
d) volume of airspace extending from the ground from vertically upwards to a defined distance

7. ETOPS can be related to which of the following
a) destination adequate
b) aerodrome ETOPS equipped
c) All of the above

8. TODA stands for
a) Take off run available plus stop way
b) Take off run available plus clear way
c) Take off run available plus stop way and clear way
d) Lading distance available plus stop way and clear way

9. Amendments in Operations Manual is done by the
a) Operator
b) Authority
c) Central Government
d) ATS Unit

10. A NOTAM for Danger Area marked in an aeronautical chart is
a) Red dashed circle
b) Red solid circle
c) Blue dashed circle
d) Blue solid circle

11. Number of cabin crew to be carried in an aircraft of 130 passengers and a seating capacity of 248
a) 4
b) 3
c) 6
d) 5

12. Obstruction in the airfield which needs to be compulsorily lit
a) 150m AMSL
b) 450m AMSL
c) 150m AGL
d) 450m AGL

13. The transition from Aerodrome to Approach shall be made while flying in IMC
a) In the vicinity
b) 15 DME
c) Just before take off
d) Just after take off

14. An aircraft reports you are at 100 (M) relative to the aircraft. What will you see?
a) Green and white
b) Only Green
c) Only Red
d) Only White

15. Log book of a flight crew is to be preserved atleast for a period of
a) 2 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
d) 10 years

16. Track separation gives a separation
a) Longitudinally
b) Vertically
c) Laterally
d) All of the above

17. Priority will be given to which of the following
a) A towing aircraft over taxiing aircraft in ground
b) Taxiing aircraft over towing aircraft in ground
c) A towing aircraft in ground
d) A taxiing aircraft

18. Reported met minima for an aerodrome is 600m RVR. An aircraft reports 800m touchdown RVR and 400m midpoint RVR.
a) Conditions are above minima
b) Conditions are below minima
c) None of the above

19. Minimum decent height for an aircraft flying VFR in a controlled airspace is
a) 500 feet
b) 1000 feet
c) 5000 feet
d) None of the above

20. Cockpit checklist and Emergency check list are to be carried in
a) All aircrafts engaged in public transport only
b) All aircrafts engaged in aerial operations only
c) All aircrafts engaged in aerial operations and public transport
d) All flights

21. RVR 300m, decision height of not less than 100 feet and not more than 200feet can be termed
a) CAT I
b) CAT II
c) CAT IIIa
d) CAT IIIb

22. Vicinity of an aerodrome for IFR
a) 5nm and 3000’ AGL holding and approach distance
b) 5nm and 6000’ AGL holding and approach distance
c) 5nm and 3000’
d) 5nm and 6000’

23. Flight time means
a) Time from which the aircraft moves on its own power for the purpose of flight to the time it comes to a halt
b) Chocks off to Chocks on time
c) Time from which the aircraft moves on its own power for the purpose of flight to the time it comes to a halt plus 15 mins
d) Time from the pilot reporting at aerodrome for the purpose of flight plus Chocks off to Chocks on time plus 15 mins

24. The Met information in the position report contains which of the following
a) Turbulence, Wind Shear and Temperature
b) Turbulence, Wind and icing
c) Turbulence, Spot winds and icing
d) Temperature, icing and wind shear

25. For a light aircraft to following a heavy aircraft
a) 1000feet beyond touchdown where the jet lands

26. Aircrafts on a head on collision course will
a) Alter its heading Port side
b) Alter its heading Starboard side
c) Maintain heading
d) None of the above

27. Altimeter correction is done while
a) On the apron
b) On the runway threshold
c) At the holding point
d) None of the above

28. Consumption of sedatives, alcohol or any drug which impairs the decision making capability of flight crew is prohibited during
a) 12 hrs before flight
b) 24 hrs before flight
c) 48 hrs before flight

29. Long eye ball and difficulty in seeing distant objects are symptoms of
a) Autokinesis
b) Myopia
c) Hypermetropia
d) Astigmatism

30. An aircraft indicating cabin pressure loss shall
a) Maintain altitude and report to ATC
b) Descend immediately to FL 100
c) Descend immediately to FL 100 and use Oxygen
d) Use 100% oxygen available

31. Photography is prohibited in aerodromes or in flight
a) Yes,AIC 4/2005
b) Yes, AIC 8/2007
c) No, AIC 6/2005
d) No, AIC 7/2007

32. English speaking proficiency test for flight crew is mentioned in
a) Section 6, Series A, Part III
b) Section 7, Series G, Part III
c) Section 8, Series A, Part III
d) Section 9, Series G, Part III

33. Obstacle Clearance Altitude is dependant on
a) Obstacle height
b) Aircraft type
c) Obstacle height & Aircraft type

34. Any person authorized by DG can enter, inspect and search cockpit of any aircraft under
a) Aircraft rules 1937, Section 156
b) Aircraft rules 1937, Section 157
c) Aircraft rules 1937, Section 158
d) Aircraft rules 1937, Section 159

35. In a passenger aircraft procedure for usage of emergency oxygen is demonstrated
a) before take off
b) during cruise
c) FL 120
d) FL 100

36. Aerobatics can be performed in an aerodrome
a) within 2nm and 6000’ above the aerodrome
b) within 8nm and 6000’ above the aerodrome
c) within 2nm and 2000’ above the  aerodrome
d) within 8nm and 2000’ above the aerodrome

37. Based on skill level errors of a pilot which of the following are least likely to commit an error
a) Inexperienced
b) Experienced
c) Both Inexperienced and experienced
d) Neither

38. Maximum permitted speed below 10,000feet for any aircraft in India
a) 250kts TAS
b) 250kts IAS
c) 250Kmph IAS
d) 250Kmph TAS

39. The minimum wake separation required for a light aircraft taking off from an intermediate position on runway behind a heavy aircraft
a) 10min
b) 5min
c) 3min
4) 2min

40. Radar separation
a) 2nm
b) 5nm
c) 10nm
d) 20nm

41. Letter ‘C’ displayed vertically in black indicates
a) Reporting office for a visiting pilot
b) Location of ATC office
c) AME office

42. Vertical distance cloud minima below 10000feet
a) 1500feet
b) 1000feet
c) 1500m
d) 1500m

43. A pilot making an approach on a PAPI system when on or close to the approach slope will see
a) 2 white near the runway and 2 red farthest from the runway
b) 2 red near the runway and 2 white farthest from the runway
c) All red
d)All white

44. Minimum distance of a building from which aircraft refueling can be done
a) 15m
b) 30m
c) 43m
d) 200feet

45. Color of AIC safety
a) Yellow
b) White
c) Red 
d) Pink

46. Identification of civil aerodrome beacon
a) 2 red digits
b) 2 green digits
c) 2 white digits
d) white strobe light

47. Aircraft operations is mentioned in
a) Annexure V
b) Annexure VI
c) Annexure VII
d) Annexure XI

48. ETOPS can be related to which of the following
a) 1hr for twin engine and 2 hrs for 3 or more engines
b) 2 hrs for twin engine and 3 hrs for 3 or more engines
c) 3 hrs for twin engine and 4 hrs for 3 or more engines
d) None of the above

49.  Aircraft A descending from FL390 to FL310, estimated reporting point at X is 0210hrs. Aircraft B at FL330 will report at X at 0300hrs. What is the earliest time by which aircraft A should reach FL 310
a) 0225
b) 0250
c) 0230
d) 0240

50. Aircraft refuelling procedures are given in
a) Section II, Series H, Part II
b) Section II, Series G, Part II
c) Section III, Series E, Part III

d) Section IV, Series D, Part II

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