1. VT-AXC owned by a
private citizen is on a flight to Sri Lanka from Chennai on sight seeing tour.
The aircraft’s required to carry________ among other things.
a. Journey log book b. C of A
c. Pilot’s License d. All above are correct
Ans.
d
2. A
certificate of registration is valid from the date of registration to.
a. 1 year
b. Till the aircraft is destroyed in an
accident
c. Till it is cancelled by DGCA
d. When the owner dies
Ans.
b
3. Altitude
in transition layer is maintained by setting altimeter to.
a.
QFE b.
1013.2 c. QNH d.
QFF
Ans.
c
4. No
person acting as PIC or operating crew member shall have taken alcohol
narcotics or stimulates during the preceding.
a. 24 hours b. 8 hours c. 12 hours d.
4 hours
Ans.
c
5. If
aircraft has undertaken a flight on route not defined by designated significant
points the pilot is required to report aircraft position.
a.
Every hour
b.
Every 30 minutes
c.
Every 45 minutes
d.
First time just after half an
hour after take off and thereafter every hour
Ans.
d
6. Before
arrival in India a health report is to be sent.
a.
Before take off b. 7 days prior to arrival
c. 2 hours before arrival d. 5 hours before arrival
Ans.
c
7. A
white dumbbell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft indicates
that you should use only.
a.
Runways
b. Runways and taxiways
c. Runways for landing & take off d.
Grass runway is unserviceable
Ans.
c
8. A
horizontal yellow diagonal on a red square panel indicates.
a.
Special precautions to be take
when approaching to land.
b.
Landing areas is unserviceable
c.
Check runway in use
d.
Use only runway
Ans.
a
9. When radio contact is lost, an IFR
flight in VMC should.
a.
Continue in VMC and land at
nearest suitable aerodrome
b.
Continue as per current flight
plan
c.
Divert to alternate airfield
d.
Force land at nearest aerodrome
Ans.
a
10. Minimum vertical distance from cloud for
VFR flight within controlled space is.
a.
1000 ft b. 500 ft c. 1000 m d. 500 m
Ans.
a
11. IFR
flight within controlled airspace shall immediately report any deviations from
flight plan resulting in;
a.
Variation of TAS by 5%
b.
Change in ETA over reporting
point by more then 3 minutes
c.
Change in current flight plan in
emergency
d.
All above are correct
Ans.
d
12. RVR
minima filed at Delhi 550m, reported touch down RVR 800, weather conditions
are;
a. Conditions for minima would have been met
in case mid RVR was 450m or
above.
b.
Below minima
c.
Above minima
d.
All above are correct
Ans.
c
13. An
aircraft ‘A’ on a track of 030M reported crossing point X at 0412 at FL370.
another aircraft ‘B’ at FL 370 on a track of 100M can cross the same crossing
point not earlier then;
a.
0427 b. 0420 c. 0422 d. 0412
Ans.
a
14. A
situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its
occupants is;
a.
Uncertainty (INCERFA) b. Distress phase (DISTRESFA)
c. Alert phase (ALERFA)
Ans.
c
15. The
aerodrome at Calicut is not declared suitable for night operations. If the
sunrise is at 0550 the earliest time by which an aircraft operation at the
station can take place is;
a.
0605 b. 0535 c. 0550 d. 0520
Ans.
d
16. The
responsibility for control of departing aircraft will be transferred from
aerodrome control to approach control when IMC is prevailing;
a.
Immediately before the aircraft
enters the runway in use for take off.
b.
In the vicinity of the
aerodrome
c.
Reaching a DME distance of 15
nm
d.
After the aircraft enters
clouds
Ans.
a
17. The
flight crew consists of pilot and copilot on an international flight. The
flight time should not exceed more than ___ number of landings restricted to
_____.
a.
8 hrs & 4 landings b. 9 hrs & 3 landings
c. 8 hrs & 3 landings d. 6 hrs & 4 landings
Ans.
b
18. A
flight to be operated with a pressurized aeroplane will not be commenced unless
a sufficient quantity of stored breathing oxygen is carried to supply;
a.
All crew members
b.
All crew members and passengers
c.
All crew members and
passengers, when the atmospheric pressure in any compartment occupied by them
is less then 700 mb
d.
All crew members and
passengers, when the atmospheric pressure in any compartment occupied by lass
then 800 mb.
Ans.
c
19. For
each flight of an aeroplane above ______ the operator shall maintain records,
so that the total cosmic radiation received by each crew member, over a period
of 12 consecutive months can be determined:
a.
41,000 ft b. 49,000 ft c. 40,000 ft d. 45,000 ft
Ans.
b
20. All
aircraft transiting from one FIR to another FIR should inform ATS units
responsible for providing FIS at least:
a.
60 minutes prior to entry b. 20 minutes prior to entry
c. 10 minutes before entry d. after crossing the FIR
boundary
Ans.
c
21. The
take off alternate aerodrome shall be located from the aerodrome of departure,
not more than a distance equivalent to a flight time of:
a. One hour for a two engine aero plane and 2
hour for 3 or more engines aero plane.
b. 30 minutes for a two engine aero plane and 1
hour for 3 or more engines aero plane.
c. Two hour for a 2 engine aero plane and 3
hour for 3 or more engines aero plane.
d. Two hour for a two engine aero plane and 1
hour for 3 or more engines aero plane
Ans.
a
22. Identify
taxy turn off lights associated with the centre line lighting system.
a. Alternate blue and white lights curving
from the centre line of the runway to
the
centre line of the taxiway
b.
Green lights curving from the
centre line of the runway to the centre line of the taxiway.
c.
Blue lights curving from the
centre line of the runway to the centre line of the taxiway
Ans.
b
23. Identify runway remaining lighting on
centre line lighting systems;
a. Amber lights from 3000 ft to 1000 ft, then
alternate red and white lights to the end.
b. Alternate red and white from 3000 ft to
1000 ft, then red lights to the end.
c. Alternate red and white lights from 3000
ft to the end of the runway.
Ans.
b
24. Identify
touchdown zone lighting (TDZL):
a.
Two rows of transverse light
bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centre line.
b.
Flashing centre line lights
spaced at 50 ft intervals extending through the touch down zone.
c.
Alternate white and green centre line
lights extending from 75 ft from the threshold through the touch down zone.
Ans.
a
25. When
instructed by ATC to “hold short of a runway (ILS critical area etc.)” the
pilot should stop:
a.
With the nose gear on the hold
line.
b.
So that no part of the aircraft
extends beyond the hold line.
c.
So that the flight deck area of
the aircraft is even with the hold line.
Ans.
b
26. Airport information signs, used to
provide destination or information, have:
a.
Yellow inscriptions on a black
background.
b.
White inscriptions on a black
background.
c.
Black inscriptions on a yellow
background.
Ans. c
27. Information
obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders will be used only for
determining:
a.
Who was responsible for any
accident or incident.
b.
Evidence for use in civil
penalty or court of enquiry.
c.
Possible causes of accidents or
incidents.
Ans.
c
28. For
the purpose of testing the flight recorder system:
a.
A minimum of one hour of the
oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test .
b.
A total of one hour of the oldest recorded
data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased.
c.
A total of not more then one
hour of recorded data may be erased.
d.
All the above are wrong.
Ans.
b
29. If you
fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to
maintain:
a. Constant air speed (VA) b. Level flight attitude
c. Constant altitude and constant airspeed
Ans.
a
30. One
pilot will be designated as PIC of a public transport aircraft for each flight
by:
a. The operator b. DGCA
c. Flying contract unit d.
None of the above is correct
Ans.
a
31. Enroute
altitude will be determined for each stage of the route by taking 1000 ft
terrain clearance within:
a.
5 nm b. 10 km c. 15 nm d. 20 nm
Ans.
d
32. Vicinity
of the aerodrome for a VFR /IFR flight is:
a.
5 miles around up to 3000 ft
AGL
b.
25 miles around
c.
As in (1) and instrument
holding and approach procedure paths
Ans.
c
33. A
flight plan is required to be submitted to the appropriate ATS unit for
a.
IFR flights b. All controlled flights c. All flights
other then local flights
d. Flights which go more then 5 km from airfield
Ans.
c
34. Flight
duty time if inevitably extended, will be limited to:
a.
3 hrs b. 8 hrs c. 6 hrs d. 4 hrs
Ans.
d
35. The
privileges of a license can be exercised by a pilot involved in an incident
after:
a.
He is cleared by the medical
authority
b.
He is cleared by the DGCA
c.
He is cleared by the ATS
authority
d.
He is cleared by the owner of
the aircraft
Ans.
b
36. For
knowing the current watch hours of a station you should look onto:
a.
AIC b. CAR c. AIP d. NOTAM
Ans. c
37. In a
category D airspace, ATC will provide separation between:
a.
IFR flights and provides information on VFR flights and traffic avoidance on
request to IFR flights and traffic information to VFR flights
b. IFR flights
and IFR flights
c. IFR flights and IFR/VFR
flights and VFR/VFR flights
d.
IFR flights and IFR & VFR
flights
Ans. a
38. Track
separation ensures:
a.
Vertical separation between
aircraft. b. Time separation between
aircraft.
c. Lateral separation between
aircraft. d. Longitudinal
separation.
Ans. c
39. Aerobatics
flight, if flying within 2 nm of the periphery of an aerodrome, will be carried
out at a height not less then:
a.
1000 ft b. 1000 ft above the highest obstruction
within 2000ft
c. 2000 ft d. 6000 ft
Ans. d
40. No
pilot shall fly for more then the number of hours specified below during any
period of 30 consecutive days:
a.
120 hrs b. 125 hrs c. 130 hrs d. 140 hrs
Ans.. b
41. Cockpit
check lists and emergency check lists are required to be carried in all Indian
registered aircraft when they are effecting:
a.
Public transport. b. Aerial work. c. Any flight.
d. Both public transport and aerial work
aircraft.
Ans. c
42.
R/W directions are given in:
a.
grid north b. true north c. magnetic north d. compass north
Ans. c
43.
No domestic flight carrying
passengers is permitted to fly with in _________
nautical miles of international border.
a.
15 km. b. 5 nm c. 10nm d. 15nm
Ans. d
44.
Prisoners to be carried by
permission of :
a.
D.G.C.A b. Aerodrome controller
c. Operator d. Police
commissioner
Ans. a
45. CO poisoning symptoms:
a.
Tightening of forehead. b. Loss of muscular power.
c. Increased sense of well being.
Ans. b
46. Without visual aid, a pilot often
interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:
(a)
Rising or falling (b) Turning (c) Motion reversal
Ans. a
47. Abrupt
head movement during a prolonged constant rate in IMC or simulated
instrument conditions can cause:
(a)
Pilot disorientation (b) false
horizon (c) elevator illusion
Ans. a
48. A
sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with
ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as:
(a)
Elevator illusions (b) auto
kinesis (c) false horizons
Ans. c
49. An
abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion
of:
(a)
Tumbling backwards (b) A nose up
attitude
(c) A descent with the wing level
Ans. a
50. A
rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of:
(a)
Spinning in the opposite
direction (b) Being in a nose up
attitude
(c) Diving into
the ground
Ans. b
No comments:
Post a Comment