1. In IMC a/c on aerodrome control to approach
control will be transferred:
(a) Immediately after take
off (b)
Immediately before entering runway.
(c) After leaving ATZ (d) 5 NM from ARP
Ans. a)
2. No of runway threshold
stripes for a runway width of 23 meters is
(a) 4 (b)
5 (c) 6 (d) 7
Ans. c)
3. Pair of landing stripes for
a runway LDA of 1500 meters is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Ans. c)
4. Filed minima 500m, RVR beginning 800m, RVR
mid 300m.Aerodrome is:
(a) Below minima (b) At par with minima
(c) Above
minima (d) Will depend on trend forecast.
Ans. c)
5. Flight manual is a manual associated with
(a) COA (b) ICAO Standards (c) DGCA CARs
(d) AAI procedures
Ans. a)
6. No of cabin crew is required according to
(a) No. of passengers
excluding crew members
(b) No. of persons on
board including crew members
(c) No of
seats (d) No. of services offered on board
Ans. c)
7. Track separation is:
(a) Longitudinal (b)
vertical (c) composite (d) Lateral
Ans. d)
8. Geographical separation is:
(a) Longitudinal (b)
vertical (c) composite (d)
Lateral
Ans. d)
9. Alert phase is:
(a) Aircraft is about to
force land in a river
(b) Aircraft is
intercepted
(c) Apprehension
exists as to the safety of the ship and its occupants.
(d) Aircraft has not reported at the time of
his ETA over the destination
Ans. c)
10. Appropriate
way to cross a route.
a) Along the traffic flow at
45 degrees
b) 90 degrees to the route
c) Against the flow of traffic keeping a sharp
lookout d) At VFR levels
Ans. b)
11. Acrobatic flights can not be
performed below 6000’ with in:
a)
2 NM from the nearest point of the perimeter of the aerodrome.
b)
2NM from the ARP of the aerodrome.
c)
Over populated areas. d) Over restricted areas.
Ans. a)
12. Semi-circular
system sectors are.
a)
From 001º to 180º and 181º to 360º
b)
From 000º to 089º, 090º to 179º, 180º to 269º and 270º to 359º
c)
From 090º to 260º and 270º to 089º
d)
From 000º 179º and 180º to 359º
Ans. d)
13. Aerodrome local flying area is to be considered, if
ATZ is not notified:
a) With in 5 NM of ARP
up to 3000 feet. b) With in 25 NM of
ARP up to 10,000 feet.
c) with in 10 NM of ARP up to 5000 feet. d) with in 5 NM of ARP up to 1000
feet.
Ans. a)
14. Minimum vertical
distance from clouds for a VFR flt is:
a. 5000’ b. 1500’ c. 1000’ d.
300’
Ans. c)
15. ICAO annex for ac operations is:
a)
Annex 1 b) Annex 3 c) Annex 6 d) Annex 17
Ans. c)
16. ICAO Annex for safeguarding against unlawful interference
is:
a) Annex 6 b) Annex 11 c) Annex 14 d) Annex 17
Ans. d)
17. White dumbbell with black horizontal bars indicates:
a) Aircraft are required to land, takeoff and
taxi on runways and taxiways only
b) Aircraft are required to land and take off
on runways only, but other manoeuvres
need not be confined
to runways and taxiways.
c) Special precautions must be observed in
approaching to land or in landing.
d)
Land and take off on runways only if cleared by ATC.
Ans. b)
18. Red square with one yellow diagonal.
a)
Landings are prohibited and that the prohibition is liable to be
prolonged.
b)
Special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in
landing.
c) Return to starting point on the aerodrome.
d) Exercise precaution while landing and
approaching to land due to extensive bird
activity.
Ans. b)
19. Minimum distance from jet blast: a. 100’ b. 200 m c.43 m d. 200 feet
Ans. d)
20. Sunrise time 0550 there is no night flying
facilities, earliest departure can be at:
a. 0550 b. 0620 c. 0520 d. 0650
Ans. c)
21. Reporting time on routes not defined by reporting
points is :
a) First half hour then every
hour
b) First report after 30’, subsequent
on as required basis
c) Every hour d) As per the desire of p-i-c.
Ans. a)
22. OCA
a) Is specified to facilitate safe holding
heights
b) Used in establishing compliance with
appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.
c) Meets
obstructions clearance criteria for take offs
d) Is used to designate obstacle clearance
along ATS routes
Ans. b)
23. Flight plan is required
a) For all
flights except local flights.
b) For local flights only
c) For IFR flts
only
d) For controlled flights only
Ans. a)
24. Deviation from standards is given in
a. AICs b.
AIRACS c. Annex 4 d. AIP
Ans. d)
25. Amendment to aircraft rules 1937 is given in: a)
AIP b) AIC c) AIRAC
d) CARs
Ans. b)
26. Current watch hours of the station is given in
a. NOTAMs
b. AIC c.
AIP d. CARs
Ans. c)
27. Cat II ILS approach
a) Decision height not lower than 60 m (200 ft)
and with either a visibility not less than
800m or a runway
visual range not less than 550 m.
b) Decision height lower than 60 m (200 ft), but
not lower than 30 m (100ft), and a
runway visual
range not less than 350 m.
c) A decision height lower than 30 m (100 ft) or
no decision height; and
d) Used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle
clearance criteria.
Ans. b)
28. Abrupt head movement during instrument flying causes
a) Pilot disorientation b) Giddiness c) Blurred vision d) Air sickness
Ans. a)
29. Oxygen supply is required for cabin pressure below
700 hPa:
a) All passengers and
crew b) Only
crew members.
c)
All crew members and 5% of passengers
d) Not required at all
Ans. a)
30. Succession of command is given:
a) In Operation manual b) by Operator c) by DGCA d)
in COA
Ans. a)
31. Pilot’s license can be revived by:
a) DGCA b) Operator c) AAI d)
ICAO
Ans. a)
32. Instrument flying time means:
a) Flying simulator b) Flying in IMC c) Flying a/c
with sole reference to instruments
Ans. c)
33. Outside controlled airspace above 3000’AMSL
a. Fly on 1013.2 b. QFE c. QNH d.
QFF
Ans. a)
34. ATPL who is 28 years old, medical is valid for
a) 2 yrs b)
1 yr c) 6 months d) 3 months
Ans. c)
35. To counter turbulence:
a. Maintain altitude b. Maintain heading c.
Maintain bank d. Maintain airspeed
Ans. d)
36. Flight plan is made:
a) By choosing routes from AIP b) By choosing the shortest route
between two points
c) By dispatcher d) By choosing most economical route
from aircraft manual.
Ans. a)
37. IFR flight in VMC, weather changes to IMC:
a) Fly VMC and land at nearest convenient
aerodrome.
b) Fly according to flight plan
c) Change to VFR
plan d) Inform ATC and
take advice.
Ans. b)
38. Person is killed on runway while landing after being
hit by the wing of an aircraft. It is
an:
a) Accident
b) Incident
c) Accident
only if it was due to pilots fault d)
non of the above
Ans.
a)
39. Certificate of registration is valid till
a) Cancelled by DGCA. b) A/c is destroyed
in an accident.
c) Ownership is transferred d) owner dies
Ans. b)
40. Emergency and cockpit check list is to be carried by
a) All a/c
b) Scheduled a/c
c) None scheduled a/c d)
Aerial work a/c only
Ans. a)
41. Straight out departure is: a. 10 degree b. 15 degree c. 30 degree d. 45 degrees
Ans. b)
42. Air report II section contains
a) Turbulence, air temp, clouds b) Air temp, icing, spot
wind
c) Operational information d) Position report
Ans. b)
43. Flight engineer is to be carried if:
a) If required by COA b) If operator says so
c) In case engines are old d) If P-I-C desires so
Ans. a)
44. FDR
a) Min 1 hr of the
oldest recording requires to be erased for testing
b) Max I hr can be erased
c) Last I hr can be
erased
d) Maximum 1
hr of the oldest recording requires to be erased for testing
Ans. d)
45. Can fly PIC if he has flown that route without
carrying passengers at least ___ times in
last 12 months:
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4 d. 6
Ans. a)
46. A/c A at F390 reports at a point at 0210 wants to
descend to F330, a/c B at F 360
estimates to reach the
same reporting point at 0300. Before what time the first a/c should
reach F330?
a. 0235 b. 0250 c. 0225 d. 0215
Ans. c)
47. An a/c can be inspected by
a. Aerodrome officer b. Custom’s officer c. DGCA authorized personnel
Ans. c)
48.
An operator must keep a record of his flight crew when flown above
______ for at least
12 months of the flight for cosmic radiation effects:
a. FL 490 b. FL 510 c.
FL 150 d. FL 290
Ans. a)
49.
An aircraft continues his approach on PAPI with all lights indicating
white. He will
touchdown.
a) Short of touchdown point b) At
touchdown point
c) Beyond touchdown point d) At threshold of the runway.
Ans. c)
50. International flying time in one day for
flight Crew is:
(a) 8 hrs
4 landing (b) 8
hrs 3 landing
(c)
9 hrs 3 landing (d)
6 hrs 4 landing.
Ans. c)
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